I was wondering about the gemara 46b when it contrasts the halachos of Rebbi Yochanan with reference to the Esrog and sukkah, because Rebbi Yochanan holds that an Esrog is only Iskatza'i until the end of the 7th day of sukkos, while Sukah is for all 8. The gemara says that the Chiluk is that by Esrog you have no more use for it (see Rashi) while by Sukah if you had a meal in the sukkah by Bein ha'Shemoshos you would have to sit in the sukkah so Migu d'Iskatza'i l'Bein ha'Shemoshos Iskatza'i l'Kuli Yoma. But I don't understand this gemara for 2 reasons: 1. How could you have a meal then if you aren't allowed to eat after Sheki'ah?
2. The gemara's statement Kartegu is difficult, because some acharonim say on the idea of Anshei Yerushalayim that they would take the Lulav and esrog all day that there was a Kiyum of Lulav still, so if so one could presumably say the same thing that if you wanted you could still mi'Safek take the Lulav and esrog mi'Safek then!
Thanks so much!
Aryeh Goldman, Queens, Ny
Regarding the first question you raised, the issue of eating after Sheki'ah is only an issue on Shabbos out of respect to Shabbos (see Mekor Chayim, Orach Chayim 431:2, and Mo'adim u'Zmanim 3:245, who elaborate on this point). Thus, on Yom Tov there would no issue eating during Bein ha'Shemashos as this reason does not apply. Even those who are stringent on Yom Tov would explain according to those Poskim who prohibit eating only from Tzeis ha'Kochavim, so there are many scenarios where one could eat Bein ha'Shemashos.
The second question you raised is discussed even by the Rishonim, as the Ran and Ritva ask why one could not take the Esrog if one has not done so in Bein ha'Shemoshos, and therefore it should also be Muktzeh. They answer that the Chiyuv of Esrog on the seventh day is mid'Rabanan, as opposed to the Chiyuv of Sukah which is mid'Oraisa, so in the case of Safek, as in Bein ha'Shemashos, one would not use the Esrog but would use the Sukah.
However, you asked from Anshei Yerushalayim based on the Yerushalmi that they would take the Esrog and Lulav all day and your question is even more relevant according to the Rambam who says (in Peirush ha'Mishnayos) that in Yerushalayim there is a d'Oraisa obligation all seven days (see Bikurei Yakov 658:1), so why would the Esrog not be Muktzeh in that case?
Actually, the Yerushalmi holds that an Esrog is Muktzeh after the Mitzvah is done and, logically, since it can also be done Bein ha'Shemashos, it should be Muktzeh the day after as well. It seems, though, that the Bavli argues with this and does not deem it Muktzeh in such a case, as the Bavli assumes that there is no Mitzvah d'Oraisa all seven days (at least in our time, even in Yerushalayim; this is the view of most Poskim) and mi'Safek d'Rabanan we do not make the Lulav Muktzeh.
Yoel Domb