1)

(a)Rabah now retracts from our previous answers (such as establishing our Mishnah when one Shi'ur of blood became mixed up with the same Shi'ur, and four with four, and explaining that Tachtonim Alu lo refers to the Shirayim of the Chatas). How does Rabah now interpret got mixed up?

(b)How does this solve all the Kashyos on Rav Ashi?

(c)What is now the only bone of contention that remains between Rebbi Eliezer and the Rabbanan?

1)

(a)Rabah now retracts from all our previous answers (such as establishing our Mishnah when one Shi'ur of blood became mixed up with one Shi'ur, and four with four, and explaining that Tachtonim Alu Lo refers to the Shirayim of the Chatas). Instead, he interprets got mixed up to mean - when the two bloods were still in the cups (and not mixed together).

(b)This solves all the Kashyos on Rav Ashi - because now we can no longer extrapolate from the various rulings of Rebbi Eliezer Yesh Bilah.

(c)The only bone of contention that now remains between Rebbi Eliezer and the Rabbanan is that Rebbi Eliezer holds Ro'in, whereas the Rabbanan don't (though Rebbi Eliezer is still able to hold Ein Bilah, seeing as most of the answers that we gave earlier to explain the Beraisa are still feasible).

2)

(a)According to Rebbi Yehudah in a Beraisa, Rebbi Eliezer and the Rabbanan only argue in a case where the blood of a Chatas Temimah became mixed up with that of a Ba'alas-Mum. What will they both hold in a case where the blood of a Chatas became mixed up with that of ...

1. ... an Olah?

2. ... a Rove'a or Nirva?

(b)How can Rebbi Yehudah quote the Rabbanan as saying that one is permitted to bring the blood of a Chatas which became mixed up with that of an Olah, seeing as they do not hold of Ro'in?

(c)Why, according to Rebbi Yehudah, does Rebbi Eliezer permit the blood of a Temimah that became mixed up with a Ba'alas-Mum Lechatchilah (even though nothing has been brought yet)?

2)

(a)According to Rebbi Yehudah in a Beraisa, Rebbi Eliezer and the Rabbanan only argue in a case where the blood of a Chatas Temimah became mixed up with that of a Ba'alas-Mum. But if the blood of a Chatas became mixed up with that of ...

1. ... an Olah - even the Rabbanan will agree that it is brought on the Mizbe'ach.

2. ... a Rovei'a or Nirva - even Rebbi Eliezer will agree that it is not.

(b)Rebbi Yehudah quotes the Rabbanan as saying that one is permitted to bring the blood of a Chatas that became mixed up with that of an Olah - because, as opposed to the Tana of our Mishnah, in whose opinion they do not hold of Ro'in, he holds that they do.

(c)According to Rebbi Yehudah, Rebbi Eliezer permits the blood of a Temimah that became mixed up with a Ba'alas-Mum Lechatchilah (even though nothing has been brought yet) - based on the Pasuk "Mum bam", confining the prohibition of bringing the blood of a Ba'al-Mum on the Mizbe'ach to where it is on its own, but precluding there where it is mixed with other blood (as we learned earlier).

3)

(a)Rebbi Yehudah concludes she'Rebbi Eliezer Omer, Yikarev bein be'Balul, bein be'Kosos. How will we reconcile this with what we just concluded (to accommodate Rav Ashi), that Rebbi Eliezer and the Rabbanan argue specifically by Kosos, and not by Ta'aroves Dam?

(b)Why is Rebbi Yehudah happy to learn like that, when we just rejected this explanation out of hand in our Mishnah?

3)

(a)Rebbi Yehudah concludes she'Rebbi Eliezer Omer Yikarev bein be'Balul, bein be'Kosos. We reconcile this with what we just concluded (to accommodate Rav Ashi), that Rebbi Eliezer and the Rabbanan argue specifically by Kosos, and not by Ta'aroves Dam - by making this a Machlokes Tana'im.

(b)And the reason that Rebbi Yehudah is happy to learn like that (even though we rejected this explanation out of hand in our Mishnah) is - because he establishes the Machlokes by Temimim and Ba'alei-Mumin, but by the same Korban. Consequently, he does not have the problem of bal Tosif, which caused us to establish our Mishnah by Kosos and not by Ta'aroves.

4)

(a)What does Abaye mean when he confines the Rabbanan's ruling Yishafech le'Amah to T'chilas Chatas, but by Sof Chatas, they hold Makom Olah Makom Shirayim?

(b)What objection does Rav Yosef (quoting Rav Yehudah) raise to that?

(c)What does Rebbi Yochanan (or Rebbi Elazar) say?

(d)Rav Huna bar Yehudah quotes a Pasuk in Korach (in connection with a B'chor Beheimah) "Kodesh hu". What does the Tana learn from there with regard to its blood that becomes mixed with the blood of another Korban?

4)

(a)When Abaye confines the Rabbanan's ruling Yishafech le'Amah to T'chilas Chatas, but by Sof Chatas, they hold Makom Olah Makom Shirayim he means that - even the Rabbanan will agree with Rebbi Eliezer, that having performed the Matanos of Dam Chatas and Dam Olah that got mixed up, above the Chut ha'Sikra, the Kohen pours the Shirayim below the Chut ha'Sikra, on the wall of the Mizbe'ach (where one sprinkles the blood of the Olah Lechatchilah).

(b)Rav Yosef (quoting Rav Yehudah) however, objects to that - on the grounds that the Shirayim must be poured on the horizontal section of the Y'sod, and not on the vertical wall of the Mizbe'ach.

(c)Rebbi Yochanan (or Rebbi Elazar) holds - Adayin hi Machlokes (the Rabbanan argue with Rebbi Eliezer here, just as they argue by T'chilas Chatas [like Rav Yosef]).

(d)Rav Huna bar Yehudah quotes a Pasuk in Korach (in connection with a B'chor Beheimah) "Kodesh hu", from which the Tana learns that if the blood of a B'chor Beheimah becomes mixed up with the blood of another Korban - it must nevertheless be brought on the Mizbe'ach.

5)

(a)What do we now try to prove from this Beraisa?

(b)How do we refute this proof?

(c)Bearing in mind that this Beraisa goes according to the Rabbanan, on which principle is this ruling based?

(d)What is the Tana then coming to teach us?

5)

(a)Assuming that the Tana is speaking where T'chilas B'chor became mixed up with Sof Olah, we try to prove that - one may pour Sof Olah on the vertical wall of the Mizbe'ach (where T'chilas Chatas is poured).

(b)We refute the proof however - by establishing the case where T'chilas B'chor became mixed up with Techilas Olah.

(c)Bearing in mind that this Beraisa goes according to the Rabbanan, this ruling is based on the principle - Yesh Bilah.

(d)And the Tana is coming to teach us that - Olin (Korbanos) are not Mevateil each other.

6)

(a)What do we learn from the Pasuk in Acharei-Mos "Ve'lakach mi'Dam ha'Par u'mi'Dam ha'Sa'ir"?

(b)Why do we now require two Pesukim to teach us the same thing?

6)

(a)We learn from the Pasuk in Acharei-Mos "Ve'lakach mi'Dam ha'Par u'mi'Dam ha'Sa'ir" that - Olin are not Mevateil each other.

(b)The two Pesukim are needed to teach us the same thing - because they are learned by two different Tana'im, who argue over its source, as we will see shortly.

81b----------------------------------------81b

7)

(a)The Beraisa learns from the word "ha'Dam" (in the Pasuk in Vayikra "Ve'hikrivu B'nei Aharon ha'Kohanim es ha'Dam") that if the blood of an Olah became mixed with that of other Korbanos, it must nevertheless be sprinkled on the Mizbe'ach. On what basis does this D'rashah certainly come to include ...

1. ... an Olah, a Temurah and Chulin?

2. ... a Todah and Shelamim?

3. ... an Asham?

(b)And which three Korbanos (that fall into none of these categories) does the Tana then include from the second "ha'Dam" (in the Pasuk "Ve'zarku es ha'Dam")?

(c)Based on the assumption that the latter D'rashah is referring to Sof Olah u'Bechor, what is the Pasuk coming to teach us?

(d)How do we refute the Kashya from there on Rav Yosef?

7)

(a)The Beraisa learns from the word "ha'Dam" (in the Pasuk in Vayikra "Ve'hikrivu B'nei Aharon ha'Kohanim es ha'Dam") that if the blood of an Olah became mixed with that of other Korbanos, it must nevertheless be sprinkled on the Mizbe'ach. This D'rashah certainly comes to include ...

1. ... an Olah, a Temurah and Chulin - because, unlike other Korbanos, had any of them become mixed up with an Olah whilst they were alive, they would all have been brought directly on the Mizbe'ach.

2. ... a Todah and Shelamim - because like an Olah, they can be volunteered as a Neder or a Nedavah

3. ... an Asham - because like an Olah, they are Kodesh Kodshim.

(b)The three Korbanos (which fall into none of these categories) that the Tana then includes from the second "ha'Dam" (in the Pasuk "Ve'zarku es ha'Dam") are - B'chor, Ma'aser and Pesach.

(c)Based on the assumption that the latter D'rashah is referring to Sof Olah u'Bechor, the Pasuk is coming to teach us that - Makom Olah, Makom Shirayim.

(d)We refute the Kashya from there on Rav Yosef - by establishing the Beraisa by T'chilas Olah u'Bechor.

8)

(a)Seeing that the Pasuk is referring to T'chilas Olah u'Bechor (as we just concluded), what is then the Chidush?

(b)How many Pesukim do we now have that teach us 'Ein Olin Mevatlin Zeh es Zeh'?

(c)On what grounds do the other two Tana'im decline to learn it from ...

1. ... "Ve'lakach mi'Dam ha'Par u'mi'Dam ha'Sa'ir"?

2. ... "Dam" "Dam"?

3. ... "Kodesh heim"? What do they learn from there instead?

(d)What do the other two Tana'im learn from the Pasuk in Bechukosai (in connection with B'chor) "Im Shor Im Seh la'Hashem hu"?

8)

(a)Seeing that the Pasuk is referring to T'chilas Olah u'Bechor (as we just concluded), the Chidush then is - Ein Olin Mevatlin Zeh es Zeh ...

(b)... leaving us with three Pesukim to teach us that (this Pasuk, "Ve'lakach mi'Dam ha'Par u'mi'Dam ha'Chatas" [in Acharei-Mos] and "Kodesh heim" [in Korach]).

(c)The other two Tana'im decline to learn it from ...

1. ... "Ve'lakach mi'Dam ha'Par u'mi'Dam ha'Sa'ir" - because they interpret the Pasuk to mean that the Kohen Gadol must take from the blood of the bull and the blood of the goat (to place on the K'ranos of the Golden Mizbe'ach) independently.

2. ... "Dam" "Dam" - because they do not consider it a D'rashah.

3. ... "Kodesh heim" - because they learn from there that Heim Kereivim, ve'Ein Temurasan Kereivah (to preclude the Temurah of B'chor and Ma'aser from being brought on the Mizbe'ach).

(d)The other two Tana'im learn from the Pasuk "Im Shor Im Seh la'Hashem hu" - what the previous Tana learns from "Kodesh heim".

9)

(a)We already cited the Beraisa Nasan Lema'alah ve'Lo Nimlach, Eilu ve'Eilu (Rebbi Eliezer and the Rabbanan) Modim she'Yachzor Ve'yiten Lematah. Eilu ve'Eilu Olin lo. What do we now try to prove from there? On whom is this a Kashya?

(b)Rav Yitzchak bar Yosef quoting the B'nei Ma'arva, establishes the Beraisa by the blood of a Chatas Chitzonah that became mixed up with the Shirayim of a Chatas ha'Penimis. How will this conform to the opinion of Rav Yosef?

(c)Abaye asked him why the B'nei Ma'arva did not rather establish it where the blood of a Chatas Chitzonah became mixed with its own Shirayim. What is the advantage of learning that way?

(d)What do we answer? What extra Chidush do we learn by establishing it by the blood of a Chatas Penimis?

9)

(a)We already cited the Beraisa Nasan Lema'alah ve'Lo Nimlach, Eilu ve'Eilu (Rebbi Eliezer and the Rabbanan) Modim she'Yachzor Ve'yiten Lematah. Eilu ve'Eilu Olin lo. We now try to prove from there - that Makom Olah, Makom Shirayim (a Kashya on Rav Yosef).

(b)Rav Yitzchak bar Yosef quoting the B'nei Ma'arva, establishes the Beraisa by the blood of a Chatas Chitzonah that became mixed up with the Shirayim of a Chatas ha'Penimis - which conforms to the opinion of Rav Yosef, in that both are officially poured either on the same Y'sod (either on the western Y'sod of the Mizbe'ach ha'Olah according to Rebbi Yishmael, or on the southern Y'sod according to Rebbi Shimon).

(c)Abaye asked him why the B'nei Ma'arva did not rather establish it when the blood of a Chatas Chitzonah became mixed with its own Shirayim, in which case - it will even go like the Rabbanan (who hold in the previous case that the Shirayim of a Chatas Penimis is poured on the western Y'sod, whereas that of a Chatas Chitzonah is poured on the southern Y'sod).

(d)We answer that, by establishing it by the blood of a Chatas Penimis, we learn the additional Chidush that - even though the Shirayim of a Chatas Penimis is crucial, it does not matter if the blood became Chaser (such as in this case, where some of it was first placed on the Mizbe'ach in the form of Matanos).

10)

(a)Earlier in the Sugya, we established Nasan Lema'alah ve'Lo Nimlach where the Kohen placed the Shi'ur Olah plus a Mashehu above the Chut ha'Sikra. How did we then explain Yiten Lematah?

(b)Which problem do we resolve with this explanation?

(c)In that case, Rava Tosfa'ah asked Ravina why the B'nei Ma'arva found it necessary to establish the case by Ta'aroves Dam of a Chatas Penimis and a Chatas Chitzonah. What did he reply?

10)

(a)Earlier in the Sugya, we established Nasan Lema'alah ve'Lo Nimlach where the Kohen placed the Shi'ur Olah plus a Mashehu above the Chut ha'Sikra - and Yiten Lematah refers to the Shiyurei Chatas ...

(b)... in which case, there is no proof that Makom Olah Makom Shirayim (and no Kashya on Rav Yosef).

(c)In that case, Rava Tosfa'ah asked Ravina, why the B'nei Ma'arva found it necessary to establish the case by a Ta'aroves Dam of a Chatas Penimis and a Chatas Chitzonah, to which he replied - that that was initially, when we thought that the Tana was speaking where the two bloods were mixed. In the meantime, we concluded that our Mishnah is speaking where it was the cups that became mixed up, and if the Kohen were to place the blood twice from each cup, once for the Shirayim of the Chatas and once for the Olah, it would still pose a Kashya on Rav Yosef.

11)

(a)What does our Mishnah say about ha'Nintin bi'Fenim she'Nis'arvu be'Nintin ba'Chutz?

(b)What does the Tana rule in a case where, without consulting, the Kohen performs the Matanos first ba'Chutz and then bi'Fenim.

(c)Rebbi Akiva rules that, if the Kohen did the reverse, it is Pasul. Why is that?

11)

(a)Our Mishnah rules ha'Nintin bi'Fenim she'Nis'arvu be'Nintin ba'Chutz - Yishafchu le'Amah.

(b)If without consulting, the Kohen performs the Matanos first ba'Chutz and then bi'Fenim - our Mishnah declares it Kasher.

(c)Rebbi Akiva rules that, if the Kohen did the reverse, it is Pasul, because he holds that - any Korban whose blood is taken into the Heichal becomes Pasul.

12)

(a)The Chachamim restrict the P'sul to a Chatas. Why is that?

(b)Then on what grounds does Rebbi Eliezer add Asham?

12)

(a)The Chachamim restrict the P'sul to a Chatas - because the source of the prohibition (the Pasuk in Tzav "ve'Chol Chatas asher Yuva mi'Damah Lechaper ba'Kodesh Lo Ye'achel") only mentions Chatas.

(b)Rebbi Eliezer adds an Asham - since the Torah there writes "ka'Chatas ka'Asham", comparing Asham to Chatas.

13)

(a)We ask why Rebbi Eliezer does not argue with the Tana Kama in the Reisha (and say Yiten ... like he did in the previous Mishnah). If he had, why would he not have said Yiten ba'Chutz ve'Ro'in ... ve'Yachzor Ve'yiten bi'Fenim?

(b)Then what would he have said?

(c)So why did he decline to answer that?

13)

(a)We ask why Rebbi Eliezer does not argue with the Tana Kama in the Reisha (and say Yiten ... like he did in the previous Mishnah). If he had, he would not have said Yiten ba'Chutz ve'Ro'in ... ve'Yachzor Ve'yiten bi'Fenim - because just as Lema'alah takes precedence over Lematah (as we have already explained), so too, does P'nim take precedence over Chutz.

(b)What he would have said is - Yiten bi'Fenim ve'Ro'in ... ve'Yachzor Ve'yiten ba'Chutz.

(c)He declined to answer that - because Chatas and Asham, according to him, become Pasul once they enter the Azarah, as we learn in the Seifa.

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