(a)Abaye according to Aba Shaul, places the Musafin before the Bazichin. Why, based on the Torah's use of the word "ba'Yom" (with regard to the Bazichin), does Abaye prefer this opinion to the one which gives the Bazichin precedence to the Musafin?
(b)Those who give precedence to the Bazichin over the Musafin, learn it from a 'Gezeirah Shavah' "Chukah" "Chukah" from the Chavitin. In that case, why do they not also learn from there that the Bazichin should even precede the Nesachim?
(a)Abaye prefers the opinion which gives precedence to the Musafin over the Bazichin rather than vice-versa - because the Torah writes in Emor (with regard to the Bazichin) "b'Yom ha'Shabbos Ya'archenu", and, in the same way as "ba'Boker" denotes an earlier time, "ba'Yom" denotes a later one.
(b)The 'Gezeirah Shavah' "Chukah" "Chukah" helps to give precedence to the Bazichin over the Musafin. The Gezeirah Shavah does not extend as far as giving the Bazichin precedence over the Nesachim too - because for that, the word "b'Yom" is effective - to place the Bazichin after the Nesachim.
(a)The Tana of our Mishnah places the Ketores between the Dam and the Evarim. Between which two Avodos ought it to be placed according to Aba Shaul?
(b)If the author of our Mishnah is the Rabanan of Aba Shaul, why did he not say between the Dam and the (two) Neros (which preceded the Evarim)?
(a)The Tana of our Mishnah places the Ketores between the Dam and the Evarim. According to Aba Shaul, he ought to have placed it between the Hatavas Shtei Neros and the Evarim.
(b)The author of our Mishnah is in fact the Rabanan of Aba Shaul. They did not say between the Dam and the (two) Neros, because they were not particular about the details (since technically, the statement is correct). See Tosfos, DH 'Le'olam', as to why the Gemara did not alternatively establish our Mishnah like Aba Shaul, explaining it in the same way as it explained it according to the Rabanan.
(a)What does Rebbi Yochanan learn (with regard to the Ketores) from the Pasuk in Pinchas "k'Minchas ha'Boker u'Chenisko Ta'aseh"?
(b)Then why does the Ketores not also precede the Evarim?
(a)Rebbi Yochanan learns from the Pasuk in Pinchas "k'Minchas ha'Boker u'Chenisko Ta'aseh" - that, just like the morning Ketores preceded the Nesachim, so too, should it precede the Nesachim of the Tamid shel Bein ha'Arbayim.
(b)It does not however, precede the Evarim of the Tamid shel Bein ha'Arbayim (as it does in the morning) - since the Torah does not write "k'*Evrei* ha'Boker, but "ke*'Minchas* ha'Boker".
(a)"v'Nisko Revi'is ha'Hin" is only written once (and we learn the obligation to bring a Nesech by the second Tamid, from the first). Why do the Rabanan prefers to learn the Nesech (by the Tamid) by the Tamid from the Tamid shel Bein ha'Arbayim (rather than by the Tamid shel Shachar)?
(b)How does Rebbi learn that from the continuation of the Pasuk "la'Keves ha'Echad"?
(c)How do the Rabanan explain "la'Keves ha'Echad"?
(d)Rebbi learns that from the Pasuk in Re'eh "u'Mivchar Nedarecha". Why do the Rabanan require two Pesukim to teach us the obligation to give the best for Hash-m?
(a)The Rabanan prefer to learn the Nesech (by the Tamid shel Shachar) from the Tamid shel Bein ha'Arbayim - because that is where it (the Pasuk "v'Nisko Revi'is ha'Hin") is written.
(b)Rebbi learns from the continuation of the Pasuk "la'Keves ha'Echad" - that "v'Nisko Revi'is ha'Hin" refers to the Tamid shel Shachar, which the Torah calls "Echad" (as opposed to the Tamid shel Bein ha'Arbayim, which it calls "ha'Sheni").
(c)The Rabanan learn from "ha'Echad" - that when one gives a Korban to Hash-m it should be from the best (since 'Echad' has a connotation of 'Meyuchad' - special).
(d)The Rabanan require two Pesukim to teach us this lesson - one by a voluntary Korban (which needs to be good quality in order to be accepted as a gift), and the other, by an obligatory one (which needs to be good quality, in order to fulfill one's obligation).
(a)Our Mishnah permitted placing heated metal bars into the cold Mikvah on Yom Kipur for a Kohen Gadol who was finicky. What is the problem with doing the problem?
(b)How do we initially get round it?
(c)How does Abaye answer the Kashya - even if the metal bars did reach the stage of Tziruf?
(a)Our Mishnah permits placing heated metal bars into the cold Mikvah on Yom Kipur for a Kohen Gadol who is finicky. The problem with this is that it involves Tziruf (since placing boiling metal into cold water strengthens it - and is considered a Melachah on Shabbos and Yom-Tov).
(b)We initially get round this by establishing our Mishnah when the metal bars were not heated to the extent that placing them into cold water will result in Tziruf.
(c)Abaye answers that, even if the metal bars did reach the stage of Tziruf, it will be permitted to place them into the Mikvah on Yom Kipur - because the Tziruf is performed unintentionally (and 'Davar she'Eino Miskaven, Mutar').
(a)What does Rebbi Yashiyah learn from the Pasuk in Shemini "Besar Orlaso" (in connection with Milah)?
(b)What does the Gemara mean when it asks why we need a Pasuk?
(c)How does Abaye answer this Kashya?
(d)How does this clash with what Abaye himself said earlier to answer the Kashya by Tziruf?
(a)Rebbi Yashiyah learns from the Pasuk in Shemini "Besar Orlaso" - that the Mitzvah of Milah over-rides the prohibition of cutting away the mark of Tzara'as.
(b)Why do we need a Pasuk, asks the Gemara? Is it not obvious, since the sin is performed unintentionally? (Note: Tziruf is not 'Pesik Reishei'. See Tosfos DH 'Hani Mili' - near the beginning of Daf 35a.)
(c)Abaye answers that the Pasuk is needed according to Rebbi Yehudah, who holds 'Davar she'Ein Miskaven, Asur' - in other words, the Pasuk is redundant according to Rebbi Shimon (who holds Davar she'Ein Miskaven, Mutar') - which means that Abaye must hold like Rebbi Yehudah.
(d)But how can Abaye now rule that 'Davar she'Ein Miskaven, Asur', when he just said that Tziruf is permitted because it is 'Davar she'Ein Miskaven'.
(a)How do we resolve the contradiction between Abaye's two statements?
(a)So we answer that Abaye's ruling 'Davar she'Ein Miskaven, Asur' (like Rebbi Yehudah), is confined to Isurim d'Oraisa (such as the Lav of cutting away Tzara'as), but does not apply to Isurim d'Rabanan, such as Tziruf.
(a)They then took the Kohen Gadol to the Beis ha'Parvah. What for?
(b)Here too, they spread a sheet between the Kohen Gadol and the people. When did he make the first of the two Kidushei Yadayim v'Raglayim, before or after he had removed his clothes, according to ...
1. ... the Tana Kama?
2. ... Rebbi Meir?
(a)They then took the Kohen Gadol to the Beis ha'Parvah - to Tovel his second Tevilah (in the Kodesh).
(b)He made Kidush Yadayim v'Raglayim ...
1. ... according to the Tana Kama - before he removed his clothes.
2. ... according to Rebbi Meir - after he removed them.
(a)According to Rebbi Meir, the Bigdei Lavan that he wore in the morning were made of linen from Pilusin (see Hagahos ha'Bach) worth twelve Manah (i.e. twelve hundred Zuz). In the afternoon, he wore linen clothes from India. How much were they worth?
(b)Which Avodah do 'morning' and 'afternoon' refer to?
(c)According to the Rabanan, the Bigdei Lavan that the Kohen Gadol wore in the morning were worth eighteen Manah (eighteen hundred Zuz). What was the value of the clothes that he wore in the afternoon?
(a)According to Rebbi Meir, the Bigdei Lavan that he wore in the morning were made of linen from Pilusin worth twelve Manah (twelve hundred Zuz) - and those that he wore in the afternoon, eight Manah (eight hundred Zuz).
(b)The Bigdei Lavan on the morning refers to the bringing the Kaf and the Machtah into the Kodesh Kodshim, those that he wore in the afternoon, to taking them out.
(c)According to the Rabanan, the Kohen Gadol's morning Bigdei Lavan were worth eighteen Manah (eighteen hundred Zuz), and those that he wore in the afternoon, twelve Manah.
(a)Who paid for these clothes?
(b)Was the Kohen Gadol permitted to use more expensive clothes than those specified?
(a)The money for these clothes came out of public funds.
(b)The Kohen Gadol was permitted to use more expensive clothes than those specified - provided he paid the difference from his own pocket.