1)
(a)We just established Rav (who remarks with regard to our Mishnah 'Nitma Basar' ... 'Im Zarak Hurtzah') like Rebbi Nasan. Alternatively, he establishes it like Rebbi Yehoshua. What distinction does Rebbi Yehoshua make with regard to 'Nitma Basar v'Chelev Kayam' of other Kodshim and of someone who brings his Pesach?
(b)Which other Korban has the equivalent Din to the Pesach in this regard?
(c)What statement does Rebbi Yehoshua make that establishes Rav like him?
(d)Rebbi Yehoshua agrees however, that 'Im Nitme'u ha'Be'alim b'Mes, Lo Yizrok, v'Im Zarak, Lo Hurtzah'. Why is that?
1)
(a)Rebbi Yehoshua holds that, with regard to other Kodshim, it makes no difference whether Nitma Basar v'Chelev Kayam or vice-versa, the Korban is Kasher, and one sprinkles the blood; whereas by the Pesach, it is only by Nitma v'Chelev u'Basar Kayam, that the blood is sprinkled, but not vice-versa.
(b)The Shalmei Nazir has the same Din as the Korban Pesach, though for a different reason (because the Torah requires the Basar of the Shelamim to be Tahor in order to perform certain Mitzvos with it).
(c)Rebbi Yehoshua adds (with regard to a Korban Pesach where the Basar became Tamei) 've'Im Zarak Hurtzah', from which we see that, like Rav, the eating of the Pesach is not essential to the validity of the Pesach.
(d)Rebbi Yehoshua agrees however, that 'Im Nitme'u ha'Be'alim b'Mes, Lo Yizrok, v'Im Zarak, Lo Hurtzah' - because he agrees that the person must be fit to eat the Pesach (and the same applies to a Nazir, who must begin counting his days again, once he becomes Tamei).
2)
(a)Who is the author of our Mishnah, which permits the blood of Kodshim to be sprinkled even if no more one k'Zayis of Basar or of Chelev remains?
(b)Half a k'Zayis of Basar and half a k'Zayis of Chelev do not generally combine in this regard. Why not?
(c)By which Korban do they combine?
(d)What does the Beraisa mean when it says 'u've'Minchah, Af al Pi she'Kulah Kayemes, Lo Yizrok'? What might we have otherwise thought?
2)
(a)The author of our Mishnah, which permits the blood of Kodshim to be sprinkled even if no more one k'Zayis of Basar or of Chelev remains - is Rebbi Yehoshua.
(b)Half a k'Zayis of Basar and half a k'Zayis of Chelev do not generally combine in this regard - since Achilas Adam and Achilas Mizbe'ach cannot combine.
(c)They do combine however, by a Korban Olah, since they are both Achilas Mizbe'ach.
(d)When the Beraisa says 'u've'Minchah, Af al Pi she'Kulah Kayemes, Lo Yizrok' - it is referring to the Minchas Nesachim i.e. a Minchah that is brought together with a regular animal. We may otherwise have thought that if the blood of the Korban with which it came became Tamei completely, it may nevertheless be sprinkled in account of the Minchah that remains, since it is as if part of the Minchah remained intact.
3)
(a)What do we learn from the Pasuk in Acharei-Mos ...
1. ... "v'Hiktir ha'Chelev l'Rei'ach Nicho'ach la'Hashem"?
2. ... "v'Hiktir ha'Chelev l'Rei'ach Nicho'ach la'Hashem"?
(b)How do we know from the Beraisa that the lobe of the liver and the two kidneys have the same Din as the Chelev in this regard?
(c)Having written "l'Rei'ach Nicho'ach", why does the Torah need to also write "ha'Chelev"?
3)
(a)We learn from the Pasuk ...
1. ... "v'Hiktir ha'Chelev l'Rei'ach Nicho'ach la'Hashem" - 'Chelev, Af al Pi she'Ein Basar'.
2. ... "v'Hiktir ha'Chelev l'Rei'ach Nicho'ach la'Hashem" - that even if just the lobe of the liver or the two kidneys remain intact, one also sprinkles the blood.
(b)We know from the Beraisa that the lobe of the liver and the two kidneys have the same Din as the Chelev in this regard - because the Tana writes 'u've'Minchah Af al Pi she'Kulah Kayemes, Lo Yizrok', implying that if some of the actual animal remains (even if it is only he lobe of the liver or the two kidneys), one may go ahead and sprinkle the blood.
(c)Had the Torah written "l'Rei'ach Nicho'ach", and not "ha'Chelev" - we would have thought that one may sprinkle the blood on anything that goes on the Mizbe'ach as a Rei'ach Nicho'ach, even the Minchah. Therefore the Torah added "ha'Chelev", to confine the sprinkling of the blood to when some of the Korban remains, but not just the Minchah.
4)
(a)When will the Pesach be brought b'Tuma'h even though the majority of the community are Tahor?
(b)What do the Tehorim do when the majority of the community are Tamei (or the community, when the Kohanim are Tamei)?
(c)When is the Pesach brought b'Tum'ah even if the entire community (including the Kohanim) are Tahor?
4)
(a)The Pesach is brought b'Tuma'h even though the majority of the community are Tahor - when the Kohanim are Tamei.
(b)When the majority of the community (or the Kohanim) are Tamei - the remainder of the community may also bring the Pesach b'Tum'ah, in order not to divide the Pesach (which symbolizes the unity of Klal Yisrael) into two separate sections.
(c)The Pesach is brought b'Tum'ah even if the entire community (including the Kohanim) are Tahor - when the Klei Shares are Tamei.
5)
(a)In the previous case, how did the knives (the Klei Shares) become Tamei, and why is that?
(b)What will the Din be if the knives became Tamei through a Sheretz?
(c)Why must Rav Chisda and Rav Yitzchak, the exponents of this opinion, hold 'Tum'ah Dechuyah b'Tzibur'?
(d)Rava holds that even if the knives became Tamei through a Sheretz, the Temei'in also bring the Korban Pesach, not because he holds 'Tum'ah Hutrah b'Tzibur', but because of the Pesukim in Tzav "v'ha'Basar, Asher Yiga b'Chol Tamei, Lo Ye'achel, ba'Esh Yisaref. v'ha'Basar, Kol Tahor Yochal Basar". How does he learn it from there?
5)
(a)In the previous case, it is only if the knives (the Klei Shares) became Tamei through a Tamei Mes that the Teme'im are also permitted to bring the Pesach, since that would render all who touched them Tamei (because of the principle 'Cherev, Harei Hu k'Chalal').
(b)But if they became Tamei through a Sheretz, it is better only that the Tehorim bring the Pesach, and not the Teme'ei Mes, since Tum'as Sheretz does not carry with it a Chiyuv Kares (only a Lav), like Tum'as Mes does.
(c)Were Rav Chisda and Rav Yitzchak to hold Tum'ah Hutrah b'Tzibur, then, once a Pesach becomes 'Ba b'Tum'ah', everyone may participate without any restrictions. Consequently, seeing as they do everything possible to minimize the Tum'ah, they must hold 'Tum'ah Dechuyah b'Tzibur'.
(d)Rava learns from the Pasuk "v'ha'Basar Asher Yiga b'Chol Tamei, Lo Ye'achel, ba'Esh Yisaref. v'ha'Basar, Kol Tahor Yochal Basar" - whenever "v'ha'Basar, Asher Yiga b'Chol Tamei" does not apply, "Kol Tahor Yochal Basar" does, and wherever the former does apply, the latter does not. Consequently, when the Klei Shares (and subsequently, the Basar) are Tamei, there is no prohibition on Teme'im to bring the Pesach.
6)
(a)If exactly half of Yisrael were Tamei, and half were Tahor, Rav holds 'Mechtzah Al Mechtzah k'Rov'. What does this mean in practical terms?
(b)Why do the Tehorim bring the Pesach independently, and why do the Teme'im not bring it on Pesach Sheni?
(c)Rav Kahana holds 'Mechtzah Al Mechtzah Einah k'Rov'. The Tehorim bring the Pesach b'Taharah. There are however, two opinions as to what the Teme'im do. What are they?
6)
(a)'Mechtzah Al Mechtzah k'Rov means in practical terms - that both the Tehorim and the Teme'im must bring the Pesach independently.
(b)The Tehorim bring the Pesach independently - because 'Mechtzah k'Rov', and Rov Tehorim do not bring a Pesach b'Tum'ah. And the Teme'im do not bring the Pesach Sheni - because Mechtzah k'Rov, and Rov Teme'im bring Pesach Rishon, and not Pesach Sheni.
(c)Rav Kahana holds 'Mechtzah Al Mechtzah Einah k'Rov'. The Tehorim bring the Pesach b'Taharah; the Teme'im either bring the Pesach Sheni, or do not bring it at all.
79b----------------------------------------79b
7)
(a)How does Rav reconcile his opinion with our Mishnah, which states that if the majority of the community is Tamei, they bring the Pesach b'Tum'ah, but not it would seem, if only half are?
(b)How does the Gemara prove this answer from the Seifa, which states 'Nitma Miy'ut ha'Kahal, Tehorin Osin es ha'Rishon, u'Temei'in Osin es ha'Sheni'?
(c)This explanation leaves us with a Kahya on Rav Kahana. The second Lashon will answer that the Tana mentions 'Miy'ut Teme'im', because only then, do the Teme'im bring Pesach Sheni, but by Mechtzah al Mechtzah, they do not bring anything at all. According to the first Lashon (which appears to give Mechtzah al Mechtzah the same Din as Miy'ut Teme'im), why does the Tana mention specifically 'Miy'ut Teme'im'?
7)
(a)Our Mishnah states that if the majority of the community is Tamei, they bring the Pesach b'Tum'ah, even the Tehorim - whereas if only half are Tamei, they do not all bring it b'Tum'ah, but the Teme'im b'Tum'ah, and the Tehorim, b'Taharah (just like Rav holds).
(b)The Gemara proves this answer from the Seifa, which states 'Nitma Miy'ut ha'Kahal, Tehorin Osin es ha'Rishon, u'*Temei'in Osin es ha'Sheni'* - implying that by Mechtzah Al Mechtzah, they both bring, the one b'Tum'ah, the other, b'Taharah.
(c)According to the first Lashon of Rav Kahana (which appears to give Mechtzah al Mechtzah the same Din as Miy'ut Teme'im), the Tana mentions specifically 'Miy'ut Teme'im' (not to imply that Mechtzah Al Mechtzah is any different, but) since the Reisha speaks about 'Nitma Rubo', it is natural to balance this in the Seifa with 'Nitma Miy'uto'.
8)
(a)There is a Beraisa like Rav, and a Beraisa like each of the Leshonos of Rav Kahana. Rav and the second Lashon of Rav Kahana establish the Beraisa 'Tehorin Osin es ha'Rishon, u'Temei'in es ha'Sheni', by 'Mechtzah Temei'in u'Mechtzah Tehorin, v'Nashim Mashlimos la'Temei'in'. How does that explain the Beraisa? Are the Nashim Chov or Reshus?
(b)The Beraisa that conforms with the second Lashon of Rav Kahana states 'Tehorin Osin es ha'Rishon, u'Temei'in Ein Osin Lo es ha'Rishon v'Lo es ha'Sheni'. Rav establishes the Beraisa by 'Mechtzah Temei'in u'Mechtzah Tehorin, v'Nashim Mashlimos la'Tehor'in'. How does that explain the Beraisa? Are the Nashim on the Rishon and on the Sheni, Chov or Reshus?
(c)How does Rav Kahana in the first Lashon explain the Beraisa?
(d)And how will Rav Kahana explain the Beraisa which states 'Halalu Osin l'Atzman, v'Halalu Osin l'Atzman'?
8)
(a)Rav and the second Lashon of Rav Kahana establish the Beraisa 'Tehorin Osin es ha'Rishon, u'Teme'in es ha'Sheni', by 'Mechtzah Teme'in u'Mechtzah Tehorin, v'Nashim Mashlimos la'Teme'in' - and this Tana holds Nashim ba'Rishon, Reshus. Consequently, if one were to deduct the women from the majority of Teme'im, they would be in the minority, and a minority of Teme'im bring the Pesach Sheni.
(b)The Beraisa that conforms with the second Lashon of Rav Kahana states 'Tehorin Osin es ha'Rishon, u'Teme'in Ein Osin Lo es ha'Rishon v'Lo es ha'Sheni'. Rav establishes the Beraisa by 'Mechtzah Teme'in u'Mechtzah Tehorin, v'Nashim Odfos al ha'Tehorin' (i.e. to make them the majority) - and this Tana holds 'Nashim ba'Rishon Chov' (as a result of which the Teme'im cannot bring the Rishon, since the minority of Teme'im do not bring the Pesach Rishon); 'u'va'Sheni Reshus' (which means that the Teme'im are a majority on Pesach Sheni, and the majority Teme'im do not bring Pesach Sheni).
(c)Rav Kahana in the first Lashon establishes the Beraisa by 'Mechtzah Al Mechtzah, v'Nashim Mashlimos la'Tehorim'; and this Tana holds 'Nashim ba'Rishon Chov' (thereby absolving the Teme'im from bringing the Pesach Rishon, since Mechtzah Al Mechtzah do not bring, according to him); 'u'va'Sheni Reshus' (making a Rov Teme'im, and Rov Teme'im do not bring Pesach Sheni).
(d)Rav Kahana explains - that the Beraisa which states 'Halalu Osin l'Atzman, v'Halalu Osin l'Atzman' holds 'Mechtzah al Mechtzah k'Rov', whereas he follows the opinion of the Tana above who holds ' ... Eino k'Rov'.
9)
(a)The Tana Kama of this latter Beraisa holds that, even if there is one Tahor more than the Teme'im, they all bring the Pesach b'Tum'ah. What does Rebbi Elazar ben Masya say? How does he learn this from the Pasuk in Re'eh "Lo Suchal Lizbo'ach es ha'Pasach b'Achad She'arecha"?
(b)What does Rebbi Shimon say about one tribe that is Tamei, and what is his reason for that?
(c)Rebbi Yehudah goes even further than Rebbi Shimon. What does he say, and what is his reason?
9)
(a)Rebbi Elazar ben Masya says that since by Mechtzah Al Mechtzah, the Tehorim bring the Pesach independently, a majority of only one is not sufficient to alter this (and at least a majority of two will be required before the Tehorim may bring the Pesach b'Tum'ah). He learns this from the Pasuk "Lo Suchal Lizbo'ach es ha'Pasach b'Achad She'arecha" - from the juxtaposition of "b'Achad" to the first half of the Pasuk (as if the Torah had written "Lo Suchal Lizbo'ach es ha'Pasach b'Echad" - meaning that one cannot Shecht the Pesach in a way that one person causes any change).
(b)Rebbi Shimon says that one tribe is called a Kahal, and that therefore, if one tribe is Tamei, they may bring the Pesach on Pesach Rishon.
(c)Rebbi Yehudah goes even further, and says that, if one tribe is Tamei, it is as if half the Tzibur were Tamei, and all the tribes bring the Pesach b'Tum'ah.