1)

(a)'Shomeres Yavam bein l'Yavam Echad bein l'Shnei Yevamin, Rebbi Eliezer Omer, Yafer'. What is the opinion of ...

(b)Rebbi Yehoshua Omer, l'Echad, Aval Lo li'Shenayim'. What is his reason?

(c)What does Rebbi Akiva say?

(d)What is the basis of the Machlokes between Rebbi Yehoshua and Rebbi Akiva?

1)

(a)'Shomeres Yavam bein l'Yavam Echad bein l'Shnei Yevamin, Rebbi Eliezer Omer - Yafer.

(b)Rebbi Yehoshua Omer, l'Echad, Aval Lo li'Shenayim' - because he holds 'Ein Bereirah.

(c)Rebbi Akiva holds - 'Lo l'Echad, v'Lo li'Shenayim'.

(d)The basis of the Machlokes between Rebbi Yehoshua and Rebbi Akiva is - whether we say 'Yesh Zikah' (Rebbi Yehoshua) or 'Ein Zikah' (Rebbi Akiva).

2)

(a)What 'Kal va'Chomer' does Rebbi Eliezer present to prove that a Yavam should be able to annul the Shomeres Yavam's Nedarim?

(b)How does Rebbi Akiva counter Rebbi Eliezer's 'Kal va'Chomer'?

(c)And what did he reply to Rebbi Yehoshua, who remarked that his argument only pertained to the case of two Yevamin, but not to that of one?

2)

(a)Rebbi Eliezer proves that a Yavam should be able to annul the Shomeres Yavam's Nedarim - because if an Arus can annul the Nedarim of his Arusah, whom he acquired of his own choice, then how much more so should a Yavam be able to annul the Nedarim of the Shomeres Yavam whom he received as a heavenly gift!

(b)To counter Rebbi Eliezer's 'Kal va'Chomer, Rebbi Akiva argues - that a man can annul the Nedarim of a woman whom he betrothed, because he acquires her exclusively; but how can one of two Yevamin annul the Shomeres Yavam's Nedarim, seeing as he must share jurisdiction over her with his brother?

(c)When Rebbi Yehoshua remarked that Rebbi Akiva's argument only pertained to the case of two Yevamin, but not to that of one - Rebbi Akiva replied that in any case, a Yavam does not acquire the Yevamah to the same degree as an Arus acquires an Arusah (as will be explained later).

3)

(a)We have already explained that Rebbi Yehoshua holds 'Yesh Zikah'. What does he learn from the Pasuk "Ishah Yekimenu, v'Ishah Yeferenu"?

(b)In light of this Pasuk, how do Rav (or Rebbi Ami) establish Rebbi Eliezer to explain how he can permit one of two Yevamin to annul the Yevamah's Nedarim?

(c)Having established Rebbi Eliezer where the Arus performed Ma'amar, how does he dispense with the Zikah of the second Yevamah?

(d)Rebbi Yehoshua too, we explained earlier, holds 'Yesh Zikah'. What status does Zikah have, according to him?

3)

(a)We have already explained that Rebbi Yehoshua holds 'Yesh Zikah'. He learns from the Pasuk "Ishah Yekimenu, v'Ishah Yeferenu" - that, when there is more than one Yavam, one needs to know on which one the Zikah falls before he will be permitted to annul the Shomeres Yavam's Nedarim ('Ein Bereirah' - though it is unclear as to why he requires a special Pasuk for this).

(b)In light of this Pasuk, Rav (or Rebbi) Ami establishes Rebbi Eliezer - there where he performed Ma'amar (the Kidushin d'Rabanan of a Yavam and Yevamah) with her, in order to explain how he permits one of two Yevamin to annul the Yevamah's Nedarim.

(c)Having established that Rebbi Eliezer where the Arus performed Ma'amar, he dispenses with the Zikah of the second Yevamah - because he holds like Beis Shamai, who hold that Ma'amar acquires completely.

(d)Rebbi Yehoshua too, we explained earlier, holds 'Yesh Zikah'. According to him - Zikah might also have the status of marriage, or it might have the status of betrothal (in which case, the Yavam will only be able to annul the Shomeres Yavam's Nedarim in conjunction with her father).

4)

(a)Rebbi Yehoshua might now hold that the Yavam can annul the Nedarim of one Shomeres Yavam for one of two reasons. What are they?

(b)Assuming that he concedes that Ma'amar acquires completely, on what grounds will he still disagree with Rebbi Eliezer when there are two Yevamin?

(c)Rebbi Akiva holds 'Ein Zikah'. If there is no Zikah at all, then why can the Shomeres Yavam not marry somebody else?

4)

(a)Rebbi Yehoshua might now hold that a single Yavam can annul the Nedarim of the Shomeres Yavam for one of two reasons - either because he holds 'Yesh Zikah' or because he agrees with Rebbi Eliezer (that our Mishnah speaks when he performed Ma'amar and that Ma'amar acquires).

(b)Assuming that he concedes that Ma'amar acquires, he will still disagree with Rebbi Eliezer when there are two Yevamin - because the fact that the other Yavam can still forbid the Shomeres Yavam on him by giving her a Get or by having relations with her, proves that the Kinyan of Ma'amar is not complete.

(c)When Rebbi Akiva says 'Ein Zikah', he does not mean that there no Zikah at all (because then the Yevamah could marry somebody else). What he obviously means is - that there is a Zikah, but that it does not even have the power to render the Yevamah like an Arusah.

5)

(a)Rebbi Elazar (ben Pedas - the Amora) maintains that Ma'amar according to Beis Shamai, is restricted. In which respect does it then acquire?

(b)So we establish Rebbi Eliezer like Rav Pinchas mi'Shmei d'Rava (who says that when a woman declares a Neder, she does so on the condition that her husband agrees, as we learned earlier) How will that explain Rebbi Eliezer?

(c)Under what circumstances does a Yavam become obligated to feed the Shomeres Yavam?

(d)Why is this explanation not plausible, according to Rebbi Yehoshua?

5)

(a)Rebbi Elazar (ben Pedas - the Amora) maintains that Ma'amar according to Beis Shamai, is restricted, and it only acquires - to the extent that it pushes away the Tzarah (but not as regards annulling her Nedarim).

(b)So we establish Rebbi Eliezer like Rav Pinchas mi'Shmei d'Rava (who says that when a woman declares a Neder, she does so on the condition that her husband agrees, as we learned earlier). And according to Rebbi Eliezer - a husband means from the moment he becomes obligated to feed her, as we already learned above.

(c)A Yavam becomes obligated to feed the Shomeres Yavam - if he runs away, in which case Beis-Din obligate him to do so.

(d)This explanation is not plausible according to Rebbi Yehoshua however - because the Rabanan, who argue with Rebbi Eliezer in the previous Mishnah (and maintain that only a married woman declares Nedarim on condition that her husband agrees - not one who is only being fed by her Arusah), and the Rabanan of Rebbi Eliezer is usually Rebbi Yehoshua.

6)

(a)We might establish the previous explanation even according to Rebbi Yehoshua, by establishing the Rabanan who argue with Rebbi Eliezer in the previous Mishnah as being another Tana, whereas Rebbi Yehoshua actually holds like Rebbi Eliezer in this instance. How else might we establish Rebbi Yehoshua?

(b)They nevertheless argue by two Yevamin. What is the basis of their Machlokes, according to ...

1. ... the second answer?

2. ... the first answer?

6)

(a)We might establish the previous explanation even according to Rebbi Yehoshua - by establishing the Rabanan who argue with Rebbi Eliezer in the previous Mishnah as being another Tana, whereas Rebbi Yehoshua actually holds like Rebbi Eliezer in this instance. Or we might answer - that Rebbi Yehoshua holds 'Yesh Zikah' and that Zikah gives the Shomeres Yavam the status of marriage.

(b)They nevertheless argue by two Yevamin. The basis of their Machlokes, according to ...

1. ... the second answer is - whether 'Yesh Zikah' applies even when there are two Yevamin (Rebbi Eliezer), or not (Rebbi Yehoshua).

2. ... the first answer is - that according to Rebbi Eliezer, the Yevamah makes the Nedarim on the condition that the Yavam (who ran away and became obligated to feed her) agrees, despite the fact that there is a second Yavam; whereas Rebbi Yehoshua maintains that the Yavam is not sufficiently close to her for us to apply that Sevara when there is another Yavam.

74b----------------------------------------74b

7)

(a)If Rebbi Eliezer is speaking when the Yavam performed Ma'amar, then (seeing as it is the Yavam who acquired the Yevamah with a Kinyan) how can he base his argument (in our Mishnah) on the fact that a woman is acquired to the Yavam from heaven?

(b)Rabah asked whether Ma'amar according to Beis Shamai, has the status of Erusin or Nisu'in. Can we resolve from Rebbi Eliezer that it has the status of Nisu'in, because our Mishnah says 'Yafer', but does not mention the father?

(c)What are the other ramifications of Rabah's She'eilah?

7)

(a)Rebbi Eliezer is indeed speaking when the Yavam performed Ma'amar. Nevertheless, he bases his argument (in our Mishnah) on the fact that a Yevamah is acquired to the Yavam from heaven (despite the fact that it is the Yavam who acquired her with a Kinyan) - because the Yavam performed Ma'amar only after she fell to him (as a heaven-sent gift) following her husband's death.

(b)Rabah asked whether Ma'amar according to Beis Shamai, has the status of Erusin or Nisu'in. We cannot resolve from Rebbi Eliezer in our Mishnah (from the fact that he says 'Yafer', but does not mention the father that it has the status of Nisu'in) - because (in spite of the singular form) 'Yafer' could mean in partnership with the father.

(c)The other ramifications of Rabah's She'eilah are - whether Chupah is required before the Yavam can inherit the Shomeres Yavam and before he becomes obligated to bury her, in the event of her death (even if he is a Kohen).

8)

(a)Rebbi Eliezer's 'Kal va'Chomer' (Yavam from Ishah) in our Mishnah cannot extend beyond annulling the Neder together with the father (like an Arus), and indeed, Rebbi Akiva specifically equates a Shomeres Yavam with an Arusah (see concluding words of the Mishnah). That being the case, how can we suggest that, according to Rebbi Eliezer, 'Ma'amar Nisu'in Oseh'?

(b)We answer 'Mai Yafer, Yafer b'Shutfus', as we explained above. Why do we not query this answer on the basis that, when all's said and done, the Tana says 'Yafer' and not 'Yaferu' (like we do in Yevamos)?

8)

(a)Rebbi Eliezer's 'Kal va'Chomer' (Yavam from Ishah) in our Mishnah cannot extend beyond annulling the Nedarim together with the father (like an Arus), and indeed, Rebbi Akiva specifically equates a Shomeres Yavam with an Arusah (see concluding words of the Mishnah). Nevertheless, we can suggest that, according to Rebbi Eliezer, 'Ma'amar Nisu'in Oseh' - because that might be his personal opinion. What he then said to Rebbi Akiva is that, granted there is no proof that it makes Nisu'in, let him at least concede that it makes Erusin, and that the Yavam can annul the Shomeres Yavam's Nedarim in conjunction with her father (which Rebbi Akiva declined to do).

(b)We answer 'Mai Yafer, Yafer b'Shutfus', as we explained above. We do not query this answer on the basis that, when all's said and done, the Tana says 'Yafer' and not 'Yaferu' (like we do in Yevamos) - because here (unlike there, where we asked the Kashya before having established that the Yavam ran away), we have already established that he did and that he is therefore obligated to feed her, in which case it is clear that 'Yafer' means in conjunction with the father (in spite of the singular form used).

9)

(a)In a Beraisa which proves Rav Ami (who established Rebbi Eliezer when the Yavam performed Ma'amar), the Tana elaborates on the three opinions in our Mishnah. What does Rebbi Eliezer mean when he talks about 'mi'she'Ba'as li'Reshuso'?

(b)We prove Rav Ami's explanation of Rebbi Eliezer (that the Yavam performed Ma'amar) from the statement of Rebbi Akiva 'Bein she'Asah Bah Ma'amar, Bein she'Lo Asah bah Ma'amar' (from which we can infer that Rebbi Akiva heard Rebbi Eliezer establish the case by 'Asah Bah Ma'amar'). How might we also prove it from the Lashon of Rebbi Eliezer 'mi'she'Nichnesah li'Reshuso, Eino Din she'Tigamer Lo'?

(c)How does Rava explain the statement of Rebbi Akiva 'uk'Sha'ar Devarim Ken Nedarim'? What are the 'Sha'ar Devarim'?

(d)And what does Rav Ashi prove from Rebbi Akiva in our Mishnah 'Ein Yevamah Gemurah l'Ishah k'Shem she'Arusah Gemurah l'Ishah'?

9)

(a)In a Beraisa which proves Rebbi Ami (who established Rebbi Eliezer when the Yavam performed Ma'amar), the Tana elaborates on the three opinions in our Mishnah. When Rebbi Eliezer talks about 'mi'she'Ba'as li'Reshuso' - he means Erusin.

(b)We prove Rebbi Ami's explanation of Rebbi Eliezer (that the Yavam performed Ma'amar) from the statement of Rebbi Akiva 'Bein she'Asah bah Ma'amar, bein she'Lo Asah bah Ma'amar' (from which we can infer that Rebbi Akiva heard Rebbi Eliezer establish the case by Asah bah Ma'amar). We might also prove it from the Lashon of Rebbi Eliezer 'mi'she'Nichnesah li'Reshuso, Eino Din she'Tigamer Lo' - because if the Yavam did not perform Ma'amar, then what else can 'ad she'Tigamer Lo' possibly mean?

(c)Rava explains 'u'ke'Sha'ar Devarim' in the statement of Rebbi Akiva ('u'ke'Sha'ar Devarim Kein Nedarim') to mean - that a Shomeres Yavam does not receive Sekilah like an Arusah does.

(d)Rav Ashi proves Rava's explanation from Rebbi Akiva in our Mishnah 'Ein Yevamah Gemurah l'Ishah k'Shem she'Arusah Gemurah l'Ishah', who clearly means to say the same thing.

10)

(a)What did Ben Azai comment following the opinions of the three Tana'im in our Mishnah?

(b)Ben Azai's comment is one good reason to rule like Rebbi Akiva. What is the other?

10)

(a)Following the opinions of the three Tana'im in our Mishnah - Ben Azai commented what a pity it was that he had not served Rebbi Akiva (adopted him as his Rebbi).

(b)Ben Azai's comment is one good reason to rule like Rebbi Akiva. The other is - the fact that he had the last word vis-a-vis both of Rebbi Eliezer and Rebbi Yehoshua.

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