1)

(a)We now know that a son cannot be Yotze with the Korban (even 'min ha'Kalah el ha'Kalah' or 'min ha'Chamurah el ha'Chamurah') or even with the money that his father left. What do we learn from the Pasuk "Korbano al Chataso" (written in connection with a Chatas Se'irah)?

(b)Now that we know that a person cannot even change his own Korban from one Chet to another, what do we learn from "ve'Chiper ha'Kohen al Chataso" (written in connection with the Chatas Kisbah)?

(c)Why do we need a special D'rashah for money? Why can we not learn this from the case of the Korban itself?

(d)What is the basis of

1. ... the distinction between the animal and the money?

2. ... the link between the Me'ilah and the Kaparah?

1)

(a)We now know that a son cannot be Yotze with the Korban (even 'min ha'Kalah el ha'Kalah' or 'min ha'Chamurah el ha'Chamurah') or even with the money that his father left, and we learn from the Pasuk "Korbano al Chataso" (written in connection with a Chatas Se'irah) - that a person cannot even use the Korban that he himself designated, from one sin to another (even if it is 'min ha'Kalah el ha'Kalah' or min ha'Chamurah el ha'Chamurah').

(b)We learn from "ve'Chiper ha'Kohen al Chataso" (written in connection with the Chatas Kisbah) - that the same applies to money that he designated for a specific sin.

(c)We need a special D'rashah for money, and cannot learn this from the case of the Korban itself - because (based on the principle 'Ein Me'ilah Ela be'Shogeg') if he did the same thing be'Shogeg (not realizing that what he was using was already designated for another sin), he would be Mo'el in the case of money and consequently Yotze too, but not in the case of the animal itself.

(d)The basis of ...

1. ... the distinction between the animal and the money is - that an animal of Kodshei Mizbei'ach cannot go out to Chulin (one of the characteristics of Me'ilah) without being redeemed, whereas money, which is only Kedushas Damim, can.

2. ... the link between the Me'ilah and the Kaparah is - that once one is Mo'el, the money goes out to Chulin (as we just explained), enabling a new type of Hekdesh to take effect on it; whereas whatever does not go out to Chulin, retains its original brand of Hekdesh, which in turn, prevents any new one from taking effect.

2)

(a)What are we trying to prove when we ask (with regard to 've'Eino Megalei'ach al Beheimas Aviv') 'Mai La'av Afilu Ba'alas Mum'?

(b)We answer (like we answered earlier) 'Lo, Temimah'. What can we infer from there regarding a blemished animal?

(c)What problem do we have with that from the Beraisa 'Ma'os she'Hifrish Aviv'?

(d)What do we answer?

2)

(a)When we ask (with regard to 've'Eino Megalei'ach al Behemas Aviv') 'Mai La'av Afilu Ba'alas Mum' - we are still trying to disprove Rav Shimi bar Ashi, who stated above that all blemished animals of Kodshim are considered S'tumin (which go to Nedavah), because, if that was so, why should the Nazir's son not be able to use them for his Korban Nezirus (like he could use his father's money)?

(b)We answer (like we answered earlier) 'Lo, Temimah' - from which we can infer that he could indeed use his father's blemished animal.

(c)The problem that we have with that from the Beraisa 'Ma'os she'Hifrish Aviv' is - why the Tana did not then speak about using the blemished animal that his father left, rather than the money.

(d)We answer, like we answered above - that seeing as the blemished animal stands to be sold, and with its money, to purchase another Korban, when the Tana mentions 'the money', he incorporates the unblemished animal.

3)

(a)According to the Tana Kama, once the blood of one of the Nazir's Korbanos has been sprinkled, a Nezirah's husband can no longer annul his wife's Nezirus. What is the significance of the sprinkling of the blood in this regard?

(b)Why does the Tana Kama not contend with the fact that the Nezirah still has to shave her hair, making her ugly?

(c)What are the ramifications of the Mishnah's ruling?

(d)According to Rebbi Akiva, the criterion is not the sprinkling of the blood, but the Shechitah of one of the three animals. Does it make any difference which animal's blood has been sprinkled, according to ...

1. ... Rebbi Akiva?

2. ... the Tana Kama?

3)

(a)According to the Tana Kama, once the blood of one of the Nazir's Korban has been sprinkled, a Nezirah's husband can no longer annul his wife's Nezirus - because that is what permits her to drink wine once again,. That in turn, dispenses with the Inuy Nefesh of a Nezirah (the catalyst that permits her Hafarah).

(b)The Tana Kama does not contend with the fact that the Nezirah still has to shave her hair, making her ugly - because she can wear a wig.

(c)The ramifications of the Mishnah's ruling are - that she will still need to shave and bring all her Korbanos.

(d)According to Rebbi Akiva, the criterion is not the sprinkling of the blood, but the Shechitah of one of the three animals. According to ...

1. ... him - it is specifically the Chatas whose blood must be sprinkled. This is because the reason that Rebbi Akiva forbids the Hafarah from then on, is to prevent the Korban from being burned (a reason that would not apply to the Olah and Shelamim, which will be sacrificed anyway).

2. ... the Tana Kama - it makes no difference which animal's blood has been sprinkled, since any one of them permits the Nazir to drink wine.

4)

(a)Tosfos is uncertain whether the Nezirus will be annulled Bedieved if her husband nevertheless annulled it. Why might his Hafarah be effective, even though the Torah forbids it? Who gives the Chachamim tha authority to sanction what the Torah has forbidden?

(b)What is Tosfos conclusion?

4)

(a)Tosfos is uncertain whether the Nezirus will be annulled if her husband nevertheless annulled it - because this might fall under the category of concessions which Chazal permit in spite of the Torah's prohibition (and they are acting within their rights as long as the issue is 'Shev ve'Al Ta'aseh' (the contravening is negative).

(b)Tosfos She'eilah remains unresolved.

5)

(a)Everyone agrees however, that the Nezirah's husbend can still annul his wife's Nezirus if she is Tamei, even after the blood of one of her Korbanos has been sprinkled. Why is that?

(b)Seeing as the reason for this concession is based on 'Inuy Nefesh', why does the Tana talk about 'Nivul' (ugliness)?

(c)As far as the Rabbanan is concerned, Tosfos explains, the Tana would have said 'Mishum Inuy' rather than 'I Efshi be'Ishah Menuveles', and it is because of Rebbi Akiva that he uses the more complicated Lashon. What does Tosfos mean?

(d)Why else might the Tana Kama have used this Lashon, even according to the Rabbanan?

5)

(a)Everyone agrees however, that the Nezirah's husband can still annul his wife's Nezirus if she is Tamei, even after the blood of one of her Korbanos has been sprinkled - because, seeing as she is now obligated to count a new term of Nezirus Taharah, her husband can claim that he cannot live with a woman who abstains from wine.

(b)The reason for this concession is based on 'Inuy Nefesh'. Nevertheless, the Tana talks about 'Nivul' (ugliness) - because we do sometimes find 'Nivul' being used in place of 'Inuy'.

(c)As far as the Tana Kama is concerned, Tosfos explain, the Tana would have said 'Mishum Inuy' rather than 'I Efshi be'Ishah Menuveles', and it is because of Rebbi Akiva that he uses the more complicated Lashon. What Tosfos means is that - because in the Reisha, Rebbi Akiva permitted Hafarah, due to Hefsed Kodshim rather than because of the prohibition of wine (because of the short period of time that this involved). Consequently, it was necessary to stress that, by Nezirus Tum'ah, where it is be a long time before she would be permitted to drink wine, he too, considers it 'Inuy Nefesh'.

(d)Alternatively, the Tana Kama might have used this Lashon, even according to the Rabbanan - to balance Rebbi Meir (or Rebbi), who uses the same Lashon (justifiably).

6)

(a)Rebbi Meir (or Rebbi) is more lenient than the Chachamim. He permits the husband to annul his wife's Nezirus even after the blood of one of her Korbanos has been sprinkled. Why is that? What is the basis of the Machlokes between Rebbi and the Chachamim?

(b)On what grounds does Rebbi Meir (or Rebbi) disagree with the Rabbanan's argument?

(c)Rebbi Eliezer too, permits the husband to annul his wife's Nezirus even after the blood of her Korban Taharah has been sprinkled, but because she is not yet permitted to drink wine. What is the basis of the Machlokes Rebbi Eliezer and the Chachamim?

6)

(a)Rebbi Meir (or Rebbi) is more lenient than the Chachamim. He permits the husband to annul his wife's Nezirus even after the blood of one of her Korbanos has been sprinkled - because, in his opinion, the husband can argue that he does not want a wife who shaves her head (making herself ugly); whereas the Rabbanan do not consider that Inuy Nefesh, since she is able to wear a wig.

(b)Rebbi Meir (or Rebbi) disagrees with the Rabbanan's argument - because (unlike modern Sheitels) the wigs of those days were crudely made and were not clean, in which case, the husband would dismiss such a possibility.

(c)Rebbi Eliezer too, permits him to annul his wife's Nezirus even after the blood of her Korban Taharah has been sprinkled, but because she is not yet permitted to drink wine - because, according to him, it is the shaving that permits her to drink wine, and not the sprinkling of the blood of her Korban (like the Chachamim).

28b----------------------------------------28b

7)

(a)What does the Beraisa say about the lambs of Shavu'os, which were Shechted she'Lo Lishman or before or after their specified time? What happens to the blood and to the body of the Korban?

(b)What does she'Lo Lish'mah?

(c)On Shabbos however, the blood should not be sprinkled. What does the Kohen achieve if he nevertheless does sprinkle it?

(d)What does Rebbi Zeira ask from this Beraisa on Rebbi Akiva, who forbade the annulment of the woman's Nezirus after the Shechitah of one of her Korbanos (because of the loss of her Korban)?

7)

(a)The Beraisa says that if the lambs of Shavu'os, which were Shechted she'Lo Lishman or before or after their specified time - the blood is nevertheless sprinkled and the body of the Korban eaten (by the Kohanim).

(b)She'Lo Lishman means - not for the sake of the lambs of Shavu'os.

(c)On Shabbos however, the blood should not be sprinkled (mid'Rabanan). Should the Kohen nevertheless sprinkle it - the Korban is Kasher and the limbs and fat-pieces are burned on the Mizbei'ach.

(d)Rebbi Zeira asks from this Beraisa on Rebbi Akiva (who forbade the annulment of the woman's Nezirus after the Shechitah of one of her Korbanos [because of the loss of her Korban]) - why he considers the Korban lost, since there too, the Kohen should be able to go ahead and sprinkle the blood she'Lo Lish'mah?

8)

(a)Why did Rebbi Zeira not ask from the Mishnah earlier, which permits the designated Olah and the Shelamim of a Nezirah (whose husband annulled her Nezirus) to be brought she'Lo Lishman?

(b)We prove from the case of the lambs of Shavu'os that in our case too, one should be able to sprinkle the Korban she'Lo Lish'mah. Does it make any difference that there, both the Shechitah and the Zerikah are performed she'Lo Lish'mah, whereas here, the blood will be sprinkled she'Lo Lish'mah, even though the Shechitah was performed Lish'mah?

(c)How do we then reconcile this with the Sugya in Menachos, where we suggest that one may not sprinkle the blood of the lambs of Shavu'os, which were Shechted Lish'mah, if the bread got lost after the Shechitah, implying that one may only sprinkle the blood she'Lo Lish'mah if the Korban was also Shechted she'Lo Lish'mah?

8)

(a)Rebbi Zeira did not ask from the Mishnah earlier, which permits the designated Olah and the Shelamim of a Nezirah (whose husband annulled her Nezirus) to be brought she'Lo Lishman - since there, the husband annulled his wife's Nezirus before the Shechitah, in which case the Shechitah, like the Zerikah stand to be performed she'Lo Lishmah; whereas we are speaking when both stood to be performed Lish'mah (only the Shechitah was subsequently performed she'Lo Lish'mah - as is the Beraisa of Kivsei Atzeres) - Tosfos.

(b)We prove from the case of the lambs of Shavu'os that in our case too, one should be able to sprinkle the Korban she'Lo Lish'mah - irrespective of the fact that there, both the Shechitah and the Zerikah are performed she'Lo Lish'mah, whereas here, the blood will be sprinkled she'Lo Lish'mah, even though the Shechitah was performed Lish'mah Tosfos).

(c)We reconcile this with the Sugya in Menachos, where we suggest that one may not sprinkle the blood of the lambs of Shavu'os which were Shechted Lish'mah, and the bread got lost after the Shechitah, implying that one may only sprinkle the blood she'Lo Lish'mah if the Korban was also Shechted she'Lo Lish'mah - by restricting the case to there to where the bread got lost, because the validity of the Korban is dependent upon the bread. Otherwise, it makes no difference whether the animal was Shechted Lish'mah or she'Lo Lish'mah (Tosfos).

9)

(a)The Mishnah states that a father can declare his son a Nazir. Can a mother, too?

(b)Can the son object?

(c)The Tana might mean that, even though the son has the right to object, when his father makes the declaration, he does not need to consult him first. What else might he mean?

9)

(a)The Mishnah states that a father can declare his son a Nazir - but not a mother.

(b)The son has the right to object.

(c)The Tana might mean that, even though the son has the right to object, when his father makes the declaration, he does not need to consult him first. Alternatively, he might also mean - that he instructs his son to declare himself a Nazir (Tosfos - though it is not then clear how the son can possibly object [see following question]).

10)

(a)The Tana permits the son himself or any of his relatives to object and stop the Nezirus. When must they do this?

(b)Why did the Tana find it necessary to present two cases: one, where they shave his head; two, where they object verbally?

(c)What else negates the son's Nezirus?

(d)The Tana may well not have included this in our Mishnah because, unlike the two cases that he does include, it will even stop the Nezirus once it has begun (though, according to some, they do too). Why else might the Tana have omitted it (besides the fact that he does want to get involved in a Machlokes)?

10)

(a)The Tana permits the son himself or any of his relatives to object and stop the Nezirus - on the same day.

(b)The Tana presents two cases to say - that can they object, not only by way of action (by shaving his head), but even just verbally (following the principle 'Lo Zu, Af Zu').

(c)Puberty ('Sh'tei Sa'aros') also negates the son's Nezirus.

(d)The Tana may well not have included this in our Mishnah because, unlike the two cases that he does include, it will even stop the Nezirus once it has begun (though, according to some, they do too). The Tana might also have omitted it, either because he does want to get involved in a Machlokes - or because he is only concerned with man-made ways of stopping the Nezirus, not natural ones.

11)

(a)According to Rebbi Yochanan, the source that only the father may declare his son a Nazir and not the mother is a Halachah le'Moshe mi'Sinai. What does Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Chanina Amar Resh Lakish say?

(b)If the source is a Halachah le'Moshe mi'Sinai, then the same Halachah precludes women from this particular right. But if is a branch of Chinuch, on what grounds is she precluded?

11)

(a)According to Rebbi Yochanan, the source that only the father may declare his son a Nazir and not the mother is a Halachah le'Moshe mi'Sinai. According to Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Chanina Amar Resh Lakish - it is order to educate him in the performance of Mitzvos.

(b)If the source is a Halachah le'Moshe mi'Sinai, then the same Halachah precludes women from this particular right, whereas if is a branch of Chinuch - she is precluded because, in the opinion of Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Chanina Amar Resh Lakish, a woman is not obligated to educate her son (implying that, according to Rebbi Yochanan, she is).