1)

Why does the Torah write "asher Yesharsu Bam" and not 'Bahem' - like it did in 3:31?

1.

Yoma, 58a: To teach us that if a Kohen receives the blood of a Korban in a bowl that is placed inside another bowl the Korban is Kasher ('two Keilim and one Sheirus') 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 4.

2)

What are the connotations of "ba'Kodesh"?

1.

Rashi: "ba'Kodesh" means 'in the Mishkan (the Heichal)', 1 with reference to the K'lei Shareis that were used in connection with the Mizbach ha'Ketores in the Heichal.


1

And not 'in Kedushah'. See Sifsei Chachamim.

3)

Having written "es Kol K'lei ha'Shareis", why does the Torah repeat "asher Yesharsu bam ba'Kodesh"?

1.

Sanhedrin, 16b: To teach us that, although the Keilim were initiated by anointing them with the anointing oil, from now on, serving with them would initiate them. 1

2.

Zevachim, 119b: "ba'Kodesh" precludes a Bamah (Ketanah) from the requirement of K'lei Shareis.


1

See Torah Temimah, note 6.

4)

Why were the Keilim of the Mizbe'ach ha'Zahav - the Kaf and the Machtah - placed in a separate cover, as opposed to the Keilim of the Shulchan and the Menorah, which were covered together with them?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: Because whereas the kelim of the Shulchan and the Menorah are only used together with the Shulchan and the Menorah, th Kaf and the Machtah are sometimes used independently - on Yom Kipur. Moreover, if, for whatever reason, there is no Mizbe'ach ha'Zahav, the Ketores is brought independently on the Machtah.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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