How will we reconcile the Pasuk here, which states that Moshe was able to enter the Mishkan, with the Pasuk at the end of Pikudei "ve'Lo Yachol Moshe Lavo el Ohel Mo'ed"?
How will we reconcile the Pasuk here "Vayishma es ha'Kol ... me'al ha'Kapores" with the Pasuk in Vayikra 1:1, which implies that Hashem spoke with Moshe from the Ohel Mo'ed, outside the Kapores?
Rashi: Refer to Sh'mos, 25:22:2:1.
Why does the Torah insert this Pasuk after the Chanukas ha'Mizbe'ach?
Onayim la'Torah #1: Because, since the Shechinah came down on account of the Korbanos. 1 it is recording its descent immediately following the inauguration.
Oznayim la'Torah #2: Because, upon witnessing Moshe distress at not having participated in the gifts that the Nesi'im had given to inaugurate the Mishkan and the Mizbe'ach, 2 Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu reassured him that his communication with Hashem 3 was the most precious to Him of all. 4
Why does the Pasuk need to inform us where Moshe was standing and that the Voice emanated from between the two Keruvim?
Rashi #1: To dispel the discrepancy between the Pasuk, which writes that Hashem spoke with Moshe from the Ohel Mo'ed, implying that he was standing outside, and the Pasuk in Sh'mos 25:22, where Hashem informed him that He would speak with him from on the lid of the Aron. The current Pasuk therefore teaches us that Hashem's Voice descended from Heaven to between the two Keruvim on the lid of the Aron, from where it moved to the Ohel Mo'ed where Moshe was standing, and nobody else who was standing outside could hear it.
Rashi #2 (in Vayikra 1:1): It teaches us that Hashem's Voice emanated (not from the entire lid, 1 but) from between the two Keruvim.
B'chor Shor: When Moshe was outside, it seemed to him that the voice came from the Ohel Mo'ed and when he was inside, he heard it from between the Keruvim. 2
In Vayikra, 1:1.2. As is implied in Vayikra (Ibid).
This is normal, since someone who is outside a house and hears a voice coming from inside cannot tell from where it comes. (It seems that the Rosh (in Pasuk 12 also learns like this, only there is a printing mistake (PF).
Why did Hashem communicate with Moshe from between the two Keruvim?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because the Keruvim resembled two children 1 and the Torah (Hashem's form of communication with Yisrael) form the basis of the Torah, 2
See Sukah, 4b.
Oznayim la'Torah: The Torah was only given to Yisrael on condition that they pass it on to their children, as the Pasuk indicates in Tehilim 8:3 "mi'Pi Ol'lim ve'Yonkim Yisadta Oz". See Oznayim la'Torah. (And Torah is a legacy for all generations, as is evident from the Pasuk in ve'Zos ha'Berachah Devarim, 33:4 "Torah Tzivah lanu Moshe, Morashah Kehilas Ya'akov").
What is the significance of the 'Hey' in "Vayshma es ha'Kol"?
Rashi: It teaches us that the Voice that Moshe heard was (not a quiet voice, 1 but) the Voice of Hashem (in full force) that spoke with him on Har Sinai. 2
Seforno: The Pasuk is coming to stress that, in spite of the contrast between this Chanukas ha'Mizbe'ach and that of Sh'lomoh ha'Melech, 3 when Moshe came to the Ohel Mo'ed, he heard the same Voice of Hashem 4 that he heard before they worshipped the Golden Calf. 5
Which would have explained why nobody outside the Ohel Mo'ed could hear it - as the Pasuk implies.
Rashi: And that nobody else could hear because it stopped (miraculously) at the entrance of the Ohel Mo'ed.
Something that they did not merit in the first Beis-Hamikdash and certainly not in the second, where no prophet came to receive his prophecy.
Because the inauguration and those who were involved with it found favor in the Eyes of Hashem, and because Moshe was their leader.
Why does the Torah write "Midaber", punctuated with a 'Chirik'?
Rashi and Seforno: It implies that Hashem was speaking to Himself, 1 and Moshe overheard it.
Rashi: As if it had written 'Misdaber', as it is Kavod for Hashem to speak in this manner about Himself ? See Seforno. In fact, the Torah is teaching us here how Hashem spoke to Moshe throughout the Torah (Seforno). Refer also to 7:89:151:1.
Why does the Torah insert the three exclusions "Ledaber Ito", "Midaber Eilav" and "Vayedaber Eilav"?
Rashi: To preclude Aharon from the Dibur. Refer to Vayikra, 1:1:7:1*. 1
Moshav Zekeinim (citing R. Yehudah ha'Chasid): It hints that the Voice passed through seven locations until it reached Moshe - from the Shechinah to the Chayos ... to a Mal'ach ... to the Ohel Mo'ed ... to the Aron, to the Luchos ... to the Kapores ... to the K'ruv. 2
Why does the Torah write "Midaber eilav" and not 'Midaber lo'?
Yoma, 4b: Because, as opposed to 'Midaber lo', it implies that only Moshe heard and nobody else. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 22.
Why does the Torah repeat "Vayedaber Eilav"?
Refer to 7:89:5:1*.
Oznayim la'Torah (repeating what he heard): To teach us that the communication went two ways - that Moshe was able to reply to Hashem should he so wish. 1
Oznayim la'Torah: As the Torah specifically writes in Ki Sisa Sh'mos, 33:11.
Why does the Torah not state explicitly that Hashem spoke with Moshe?
