1)

What is the connection between this Pasuk and the previous one?

1.

Ramban: The Torah is teaching us here that all that is written in the previous Pasuk applies to Hashem exclusively, and that applying them to any other god is forbidden.

2)

Why does the Torah mention specifically "me'Elohei ha'Amim asher Sevivoseichem"?

1.

Rashi: Because, since those were the gods that they saw being worshipped, it was necessary to warn them particularly about them - but not to the preclusion of gods that were further away.

2.

Oznaim la'Torah: It went without saying that they would not worship the gods of the nations that they had defeated, which were unable to save their adherents from them; and it was against worshipping the gods of the surrounding nations 1 that they needed to be warned. 2

1

See Oznayim la'Torah, who elaborates.

2

Bearing in mind the strong Yeitzer ha'Ra that existed until the Anshei Keneses ha'Gedolah expelled it.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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