Why does the Torah write "Ve'hizir ... " before "Ve'heivi ... "?
Nazir, 18a: To teach us that the Nazir begins counting again even if he did not bring the Asham. 1
Nazir, Ibid.: In fact, this is the only Asham in the Torah which is not crucial. See Torah Temimah, note 87.
What are the ramifications of "ve'ha'Yamim ha'Rishonim Yiplu"?
Rashi (in Chulin, 89b): If he became Tamei after having counted some of the days of his Nezirus, he cancels what he counted and, after shaving, begins all over again. 1
Nazir, 19b: Based on the fact that "Yamim ha'Rishonim" is plural - if the Nazir becomes Tamei on the first day of his Nezirus, he continues counting ninety-nine days and does not need to begin counting again. And it is only if he has already counted two full days 2 that he needs to start again from the beginning.
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) phrase "Ki Tamei Nizro"?