1)

Why did he say "Mechon Shivtecha"?

1.

Refer to Melachim I, 8:39:1:1.

2)

Why does it say "v'Salachta v'Nasata la'Ish k'Chol Derachav"?

1.

'Rashi': The Rasha will receive what is proper for his evil 1 , and the Tzadik what if proper for his virtue. If the Rasha would not be punished, he would criticize Hashem's conduct, and say that there is no Elokim, and there would be Chilul Hashem.


1

Perhaps 'Rashi' means that even though You pardoned, the Rasha must receive what is proper for his evil, lest there be Chilul Hashem. 'Rashi' connects this with "Teda Es Levavo." I.e. if You know that if he is not punished, he will criticize Your conduct, You punish him! (PF)

3)

Why did he mention that Hashem knows what is in people's hearts?

1.

Refer to 6:30:2:1*, refer to Melachim I, 8:39:3:1.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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