1)

What does "ha'Kohen ha'Mechatei osah Hu Yochlenah" mean?

1.

Rashi (citing Zevachim, 102b): It means the Kohen who performs the Avodah that turns it into a Chatas (the Z'rikas ha'Dam - Rashi, 1 Avodah Zarah, 52b) shall eat it. 2

2.

Zevachim, 99a: It precludes a Kohen who is a T'vul-Yom or a Mechusar Kipurim even from receiving a portion to eat later.


1

See Torah Temimah, note 104.

2

Refer to 6:19:1:2.

2)

What is the word "ha'Mechatei Osah" coming to preclude?

1.

Zevachim, 10b: It precludes the blood of all Korbanos other than the Chatas (the Olah, the Asham and the Shelamim). from being sprinkled on the top half of the Mizbe'ach. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 105.

3)

Bearing in mind what the Torah writes in Pasuk 22, "Kol Zachar ba'Kohanim Yochal osah", what does the Pasuk mean when it writes "ha'Kohen ha'Mechatei osah Yochlenah"?

1.

Rashi: This authorizes any Kohen who is fit to perform the Avodah to receive a portion of the Chatas (or of any other Kodshei Kodshim) - to preclude a Kohen who is Tamei at the time when the Z'rikas ha'Dam is performed.

4)

Seeing as all the Kohanim of the Beis-Av of that day share the Chatas, why does the Torah write "ha'Kohen ha'Mechatei osah"?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: Because he acquires the Basar on behalf of the other Kohanim of his Beis-Av. 1


1

See Oznayim la'Torah on Pasuk 9 DH 'Yochlu Aharon u'Vanav' #1,

5)

Why does the Torah add (the otherwise superfluous words) "ba'Chatzar Ohel Mo'ed"?

1.

Rashi (in 7:19): To teach us that a Korban that leaves the precincts of the Azarah becomes Pasul

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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