1)

What is the translation of "O Ish ... Ru'ach Kin'ah"?

1.

Rashi: "If 1 there passes over a man a spirit of jealousy'.

2.

Seforno: It means 'Or if a spirit of jealousy passes over man' - without good reason. 2


1

Rashi: As in Sh'mos 21:36.

2

Refer to 5:29:1:1.

2)

Why does the Torah need to insert "Ve'asah lah ha'Kohen eis Kol ha'Torah ha'Zos!"

1.

Seforno: To reassure him that he need not be concerned about erasing the Name of Hashem.

2.

Megilah, 20b: To teach us via a Gezeirah Shavah "Torah" "Torah" from the Pasuk in Shoftim, 17:11 "Al-Pi ha'Torah asher Yorucha ve'al ha'Mishpat" - that just as there, "Mishpat" applies all day, 1 so too is "Torah" - written there and with reference to the current Pasuk, applicable all day (and that, just as there - by Zakein Mamrei - it is speaking about the Sanhedrin ha'Gadol of seventy-one, so too here by Sotah, does the husband take her to the Sanhedrn ha'Gadol - Sotah, 7b 2 and that, based on the same Gezeirah Shavah, a Megilas Sotah that is written in the nght2 is Pasul - Sotah, 17b). 3

3.

Sotah, 18a: "Kol ha'Torah ha'Zos" implies that the entire Megilah must be written before the Kohen erases any letters - and that if he writes a letter and erases it, writes a letter and erases it, it is Pasul..


1

See Torah Temimah, note 156.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 157.

3

See note 156.

3)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "Ve'asah lah ha'Kohen"?

1.

Rashi (in Sotah, 18a): To teach us that the Megilas Sotah must be written li'Shemah. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 155.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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