1)

Why did he say "Lo Tov ha'Davar"?

1.

Rashi: It is bad in Hashem's eyes.

2.

Malbim: Not only is this unlike Torah and straightness - it is also bad for you!

2)

Why did he say "b'Yir'as Elokim"?

1.

Ibn Ezra: For the sake of Yir'as Elokim.

3)

What is the meaning of "[Telechu] me'Cherpas ha'Goyim"?

1.

Rashi: Due to reviling via Nochrim.

2.

Ibn Ezra: You should not hear reviling via Nochrim. This was the Shemitah year 1 .

3.

Malbim: Even if you do not fear Hashem, and are not zealous for the Torah's Mitzvos, you must appear to conduct with Yir'as Hashem to avoid shame from Goyim. They should not say that you have no Emunah and creed, and you anger Hashem!


1

Ibn Ezra explains, we started counting Shemitah from when Koresh authorized Jews to return. Koresh reigned three more years from then, Achashverosh 14, and Daryavesh 32 (verse 14) - in all, 49 (Mem Dalet in Ibn Ezra is a printing mistake). This was the seventh Shemitah. (PF)

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