Seeing as "Kisbah" and "Se'irah" are both from the flock, why does the Torah mention "min ha'Tzon"?
Sifra: a. To include a sheep or a goat even if it is deaf, a Shoteh or a dwarf, and b. to preclude a Palgas ? a sheep that is in its thirteenth month. 1
Since it has left the realm of 'Seh' and not yet entered that of 'Ayil'.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "al Chataso asher Chata??
Sifra: It inserts ?al Chataso ? ? (singular) to teach us that if he swears that he will not eat and he subsequently eats many different foods, or that he will not drink and he drinks many different beverages, he is only Chayav one Korban.
Why does the Torah not mention Semichah?
Ramban: Because it was mentioned earlier regarding all the Chata'os and the Korbanos Nedavah in the Parshah, so it is not necessary to mention it again. 1
Ramban: The Torah inverted the order - First he brings the Korban, then leans on it and confesses, like we find in Vayikra 6:21. See Oznayim la'Torah, who explains why.
Seeing as the Torah writes "Kisbah O Se'irah", why does it add "min ha'Tzon"?
Oznayim la'Torah: Since the Torah is lenient to allow a poor man to bring a less Chashuv Korban, it is also lenient to allow the rich man to bring any animal from the flock, even if it is not a choice animal. 1
And by the same token, the Torah mentions the Kisbah before the Se'irah, even though elsewhere, it mentions the Se'irah first. See Oznayim la'Torah, DH 'Kisbah O Se'iras Izim'.
What age must the sheep be to fall under the category of "Kisbah"?
Rashi: "Kisbah" always refers to a lamb in its first year.
Why does the Torah write "me'Chataso" here and in Pasuk 10, in connection with the Torim and B'nei Yonah, and "al Chataso" in Pasuk 13, in connection with the Asiris ha'Eifah,?
Kerisos, 27b: To teach us that, on the one hand, a rich man who designates money for a Kisbah may exchange it 1 for a Se'irah or vice-versa, or if he designates money for a Kisbah or Se'irah, he may switch to Torim or B'nei-Yonah, or from Torim and B'nei-Yonah to Asiris ha'Eifah of flour, whilst on the other hand, a poor man who designates money for Asiris ha'Eifah of flour and becomes rich is obligated to switch to Torim or B'nei-Yonah, or from Torim or B'nei-Yonah to Kisbah or Se'irah.
See Torah Temimah, note 57.
Why does the Torah refer to his Korban at one and the same time as "Ashamo", and "le'Chatas"?
