If by Pharaoh, the Torah writes "va'Tipa'em Rucho (his spirit was agitated)," why does the Pasuk in Daniel in connection with Nevuchadnetzar, write "va'Tispa'em Rucho" (Daniel 2:1)?
Rashi: Because, as opposed to here, Nevuchadnetzar could not even remember the dream.
Ramban: Because whereas Pharaoh was calm during the night, 1 and his nerves were only aroused in the morning, Nevuchadnetzar experienced a double agitation, inasmuch as it began already in the night. 2
Oznayim la'Torah: Because a dream that comes via an angel 3 and predicts the future, it agitates the dreamer 4 until it is interpreted, and the more encompassing the dream, the stronger the agitation. Consequently, regarding the butler and the baker, whose dreams concerned only themselves, the Torah merely wrote that "Peneihem" were perturbed and downcast (40:6-7); then regarding Pharaoh, whose dream involved all countries, but only for fourteen years, the Pasuk writes "va'Tipa'em Rucho;" whereas regarding Nevuchadnetzar, whose dream involved the four Malchuyos until the time of Mashi'ach, it writes "va'Tispa'em Rucho" (Daniel 2:1).
In fact, he lay in bed wondering whether he would dream a third installment, just as there had been a second one.
Perhaps this is also the opinion of the Rashbam, who explains "va'Tipa'em Rucho" to mean that Pharaoh changed his mind in the morning and decided to have the dream interpreted (insinuating that during the night he did not do so).
Like a prophecy agitates a prophet until he relates it. See Oznayim la'Torah, who bases this concept on a Pasuk in Yirmeyahu.
Why were all the wise men of Egypt unable to present what appears to be an obvious interpretation?
Seforno: Because they thought that Pharaoh had dreamt two dreams 1 which they interpreted accordingly, whereas Pharaoh knew that the two parts of the dream were one. 2
Targum Yonasan: Hashem removed their intelligence, because the time had come for Yosef to go free.
Ha'amek Davar: They thought that it refers to Pharaoh himself. Pharaoh would not be hungry for bread, so they needed to explain it to discuss other matters.
Pharaoh told them his dream (singular). Why does the Torah then tell us that they could not interpret them (plural)?
Ramban: Pharaoh recognized that both dreams hint to one matter. They could not even interpret one of the dreams.
Seforno, Malbim, Ha'amek Davar: That was precisely their mistake (Refer to 41:18:2:1) - the assumption that there were two dreams.
Why does the Torah add the word "l'Pharaoh"?
Rashi and Rashbam: They did interpret the dream, 1 but their interpretation did not find favor with Pharaoh. 2
Ohr ha'Chayim, Malbim, Ha'amek Davar: The king of Egypt is always called Pharaoh. He recognized that his dreams pertain to the kingdom. Their interpretations, on the other hand, were for him personally.
Why did Hashem cause Pharaoh to remember his dreams, whereas Nevuchadnetzar (Daniel 2:1-11) could not even remember his dream?
Rosh: Nevuchadnetzar was angry at Yisrael, who did not want to bow to the image, so Hashem caused that he would have even more appreciation for Daniel, so that he would aggrandize him.
Da'as Zekenim, Hadar Zekenim, Moshav Zekenim #1: Nevuchadnetzar's dream would not be fulfilled for a long time, so had he told the dream, he would not have believed Daniel's interpretation. Pharaoh's dream would take effect immediately, so he believed Yosef, even though Yosef heard the dream. 1
Moshav Zekenim #2: Had Pharaoh forgotten his dream, the butler would not mention Yosef, who knows only to interpret what he hears.
Why wasn't Pharaoh angry at his Chachamim, who could not interpret the dream? Nevuchadnetzar ordered to kill his Chachamim (Daniel 2:12), who could not interpret a dream that they never heard (for he had forgotten it)!
Rosh, Da'as Zekenim, Hadar Zekenim, Moshav Zekenim: Nevuchadnetzar was angry at those who counseled him to destroy the Mikdash and kill the Kohanim, for now there is no Kohen Gadol with Urim v'Tumim. Rosh, Da'as Zekenim - We read "v'Acharan [Lo Isai]" (Daniel 2:11) like 'v'Aharon' (Hei and Ches are interchangeable).
What are Chartumim? They are not the Chachamim mentioned afterwards!
Rashi: 'Chartumim' is the acronym of 'ha'Necherim be'Timei Meisim. (Refer to 41:8:155).
Hadar Zekenim: This is Char Tumi (he engages with the dead).
Malbim: Chartumim know witchcraft and its offshoots. Chachamim are astrologers.
Why does it mention "va'Yehi ba'Boker"?
Moshav Zekenim: Any dream close to morning will surely (Bereishis Rabah 89:6 - immediately) be fulfilled. This is why he was agitated.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "'Va'Tipa'em Rucho' - [His spirit] was knocking within him like a bell (Pa'amon)." But it is not the bell as a whole that knocks, but rather only the clapper within it?
Mizrachi: In this instance, the clapper component is referred to as a bell.
Gur Aryeh: One commonly associates the knock to the bell [as a whole]; not to the clapper alone. 1 (Thus, the Torah can use the term "va'Tipa'em" to refer to the "knocking" within Pharaoh's spirit.)
Although the clapper produces the knock, the audible chime comes from the clapper and bell together. (EK)
Rashi writes: "Regarding Nevuchadnetzar, the verse uses the term 'va'Tispa'em' (Daniel 2:1), for there were two [reasons for him to be] agitated...." How is this derived?
Mizrachi: From the added letter Tav.
Gur Aryeh: "Va'Tispa'em" is in reflexive (Hispa'el) form - indicating something one does to oneself. 1 This means to be doubly troubled.
I.e. it was he himself that was both doing the knocking and being knocked. (EK)
Rashi writes: "[The wise men and necromancers offered the interpretation,] 'Seven daughters you shall beget....'" Why did Pharaoh refuse to accept their interpretations; perhaps they were correct?
Gur Aryeh #1: Pharaoh's spirit was vexed due to his dream. The fact that he was not relieved upon hearing their interpretations, showed that they were false.
Gur Aryeh #2: Pharaoh's spirit was vexed due to his dream; this shows that a great change was about to befall him. Bearing seven daughters, then burying them all, would leave him exactly the same as he was before; so why would he be so troubled? 1
Gur Aryeh: That is why, when Yosef explained that a great famine was coming and that Pharaoh was so troubled because he needed to take action, Pharaoh immediately accepted the interpretation.
Rashi writes: "[They offered the interpretation,] 'Seven daughters you shall beget....'" How did Chazal derive what the necromancers' suggestion was?
Gur Aryeh #1: Rashi [citing the Midrash] derives that "their voices went in one ear and out the other" - as if they had said nothing at all. They must have offered some interpretation that would leave him just as he was before, 1 failing to explain his vexed spirit.
Gur Aryeh #2: The necromancers explained to Pharaoh that the cows (Paros) alluded to daughters, as in "Peru u'Revu" (1:28) - to be fruitful and multiply. Pharaoh was ignorant of Leshon ha'Kodesh 2 and its etymology, so this explanation did not resonate with him.
Rashi writes: "... Seven daughters you shall beget....'" The Midrash continues; they interpreted the seven ears of grain to allude that Pharaoh would conquer seven kingdoms, but seven districts would revolt. How is this derived? How are the two dreams solved by this proposed interpretation?
Gur Aryeh #1: The necromancers reasoned that the two dreams on the same night must parallel each other. If the cows allude to children, 1 which represent the world's development, the ears of grain must also allude to new settlement (in the literal sense).
Gur Aryeh #2: The Midrash did not mean these specific interpretations; these are examples of interpretations that would leave Pharaoh unchanged. 2
Rashi writes that 'Chartumim' is the acronym of 'ha'Necherim be'Timei Meisim.' What is this?
Mizrachi #1, Sifsei Chachamim #1: They put bones of Meisim in their nostrils, and tell the future.
Mizrachi #2, Sifsei Chachamim #2: They become heated through bones of the dead, and via this they tell the future, similar to a Ba'al Ov.
Gur Aryeh: "Necherim" means to instigate or to incite 1 (Giruy). The necromancers instigate the bones to inform them of future events.
Gur Aryeh cites Yeshayah 41:11 as an example of this meaning (however, some commentators translate that verse to mean anger, or contention - CS).
Rashi writes that the Chartumim interpreted that he would father seven daughters, and then bury them. Why didn't the dream follow their interpretation?
Moshav Zekenim: A dream follows the interpretation only when the dreamer accepts that it is a proper interpretation. Pharaoh did not accept their interpretation. Also see 41:13:1:1.
