1)

What is the correlation between this Pasuk and the previous one?

1.

Or ha'Chayim: The previous Pasuk is referring to Teshuvah that they will perform of their own accord; the current one, to Teshuvah that they will perform due to the Tzaros that will befall them. 1

1

Sha'arei Teshuvah 1:1: Teshuvah is accepted even if one repents due to afflictions, and all the more so if one repents due to fear and love of Hashem .

2)

When is "be'Acharis ha'Yamim" referring to?

1.

Ramban and Seforno: The end of the Pasuk is also 1 reminiscent of the termination of Galus Bavel, 2 when they returned to Hashem, confessed their sins and listened to the prophets 3 - which explains Pasuk 31. 4

1

Refer to 4:25:2:1*.

2

Seforno: See also 30:1 & 2 (and the Ramban there).

3

See also Ramban, 28:42

4

Ramban: In keeping with the Pasuk in Vayikra 26:32.

3)

Why does the Torah not mention that Hashem will answer their Tefilos and take them out of Galus?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: Because it mentions in Ha'azinu, 30:2. 1

1

Oznayim la'Torah: And 'The words of the Torah are poor in one place and rich in another' (Yerushalmi Rosh Hashanah, 3:5).

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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