1)

Why does the Pasuk omit the title of "Kohen ha'Ma'shi'ach" with regards to the Ha'za'ah of the Par?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: To teach him that, when performing the Haza'ah ? the main Kaparah of his Korban, he should forget his high position and humble himself as if he was an ordinary Kohen who is serving before Hashem. 1


1

See Oznayim la'Torah.

2)

Why does the Torah insert the word "ve'Taval ha'Kohen Es Etzba'o"

1.

Zevachim, 40b: To include a strip of loose flesh on his finger, which does not invalidate the sprinkling.

3)

With which forefinger does the Kohen sprinkle the blood?

1.

Sifra: We learn from a Gezeirrah Shavah "Etzba'o" "Etzba'o" from Metzora Vayikra, 14:16, that he sprinkles with his right forefinger. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 20.

4)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "ve'Taval ha'Kohen Es Etzba'o ba'Dam" (See Torah Temimah, note 21)?

1.

Zevahim, 93b: To teach us that, when the Kohen begins to dip his finger into the bowl, it must contain sufficient blood for all seven sprinklings. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 22.

5)

Having mentioned "Kohen ha'Mashi'ach" in the previous Pasuk, why does the Torah add the word "ha'Kohen"?

1.

Kidushin, 36b: To confine the sprinkling of the Par Kohen Gadol to the Kohen Gadol himself.

6)

Why does the Torah refer to the Paroches as "Paroches ha'Kodesh"?

1.

Rashi and Rashbam (on Pasuk 17): To teach the Kohen that he must sprinkle the blood at the point that faces between the poles of the Aron on the other side of the Paroches. 1


1

Though the blood did not need to touch the Paroches (Rashi).

7)

Why does the Kohen Gadol sprinkle the blood seven times?

1.

Moshav Zekenim: To atone for the "Sheva To'avos Nafsho" (Mishlei 6:16) and to remove from them the curse "Sheva ke'Chatoseichem" (in Bechukosai Bamidbar, 26:21).

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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