Who is "Kohen ha'Mashi'ach" referring to?
Targum Yonasan: It is referring to the Kohen Gadol who has been anointed with the anointing oil 1 exclusively. 2
Horayos, 12a: It refers specifically to a Kohen Gadol who was anointed with the Shemen ha'Mishchah. "Kohen"- precludes a king; "Mashi'ach" ? a Merubeh Begadim 3 and the 'Hey' in "ha'Mashi'ach" ? a Kohen Gadol for war, who was anointed with the Shemen ha'Mishchah but who has a superior (the Kohen Gadol) above him.
Oznayim la'Torah ? because the Shemen ha'Mishchah imbued the Kohen Gadol with Ru'ach ha'Kodesh, thereby granting him the ability to issue rulings according to the Halachah like the Sanhedrin. See Oznayim la'Torah who elaborates.
Who was initiated by wearing the Bigdei Kohen Gadol after the anounting oil was hidden - with reference to the Kohanim Gedolim in the era of the second Beis-Hamikdash.
The previous Pasuk began with "Nefesh ki Secheta" and it now continues with "Kohen ha'Mashi'ach". In which regard is the Torah comparing a Kohen Gadol who sinned to a Yachid?
Yerushalmi Horayos, 2:1: If the ate Cheilev or Dam relying on a ruling of the Sanhedrin, he is Patur from bringing a Korban 1 ? like a Yachid.
See Torah Temimah, note 4.
Seeing as the Gemara in Horayos, 13a gives a king precedence over a Kohen Gafol, who does the Torah here give precedence to the Kohen Gadol?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because, bearing in mond that the Kohen Gadol atones for others, when it comes to atonement, it is correct to give him precedence, so that he becomes Tahor before making others Tahor. 1
Whereas the Gemara is speaking about saving his life and redeeming him and sother such issues. See Torah Temimah, who elaborates.
What if a Kohen Hedyot sins and then becomes a Kohen Gadol before he has brought his Chatas?
Horayos, 10a: A Kohen Hedyot who sins and is appointed Kohen Gadol before he has brought his Chatas brings the regular Chatas of a Yachid who sineed ? as the Lashon of the Pasuk implies.
What is the significance of the words "le'Ashmas ha'Am"?
Rashi #1 and Rashbam #1 (citing Horayos, 7b): We learn from the Chatas Tzibur, where the Torah uses the same expression, that the Kohen Gadol is only subject to the current Korban if a. he rules that a Chiyuv Kareis (and Shigegaso Chatas ? Horayos, Ibid.) is permitted and b. he actually implements his P'sak 1 (and like a Tzibur, he is only Chayav to bring his Par If he he ruled to negate a part of the Isur, but part of it he maintained ? Horayos, 12b). 2
Rashi #2 and Seforno: To teach us that, since the people are dependant upon him to atone for them and to Daven for them, if he sins, it is on account of their sins that he now erred. 3
Ramban (on Pasuk 14): To teach us that the same Din applies to the Kohen Gadol as to the Tzibur. 4
Rashbam #2 and Moshav Zekenim: It means that of the Kohen Gadol sins by issuing a wrong P'sak, this causes the people to sin as well (even on purpose, since the people take their cue from him ? Oznayim la'Torah).
Targum Yonasan: It means that the Kohen Gadol sinned by bringing a Korban (Chatas) on behalf of the people not according to the Halachah. 5
Moshav Zekenim: 'He'elam Davar Im Shigegas Ma'aseh means that he erred in deed - he thought that the piece that he was eating was Shuman) and was not aware that he sinned.
This will be explained in Pasuk 14.
As Chazal say in B'rachos, 34b - 'If the Shali'ach Tzibur sins, it is a bad sign for those who appointed him' (Seforno). See also Oznayim la'Torah.
See Na'ar Yonasan.
Why does the Torah add the words "al Chataso asher Chata"?
Horayos, 10a: To teach us that a Kohen Gadol who sinned and who was removed from office before bringing his Chatas or who sinned after he was removed, nevertheless brings a Par. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 10.
Why does the Torah add the words "al Chataso asher Chata"?
Horayos, 7a #1: To teach us that he is only Chayav to bring a Par if he himself acts upon his erroneous ruling but not if only others do so. 1
Horayos, 7a #2: It also implies that the Kohen Gadol only brings his own Par if he alone issued the erroneous ruling and acted upon it, but if the Sanhedrin too, issued the same ruling and the Tzibur acted upon it, he shares in the Par of the Tzibur. 2
What is the definition of "Par ben-Bakar"?
Rashi: "Par" implies an old bull (even in its fourth year); "ben", a young one (in its second year) 1 . Therefore "Par ben Bakar" refers to a bull in its third year.
Why does a Kohen Gadol bring an ox?
Moshav Zekenim: Since they sinned with an ox (the Eigel ha'Zahav), their Chatas is a calf. And so is Hashem's Midah - the matter He strikes 1 with, He heals with.
Here, Hashem did not strike with the calf! However, just like He heals with the matter He strikes with, so He heals with the matter people sinned with. (PF)
