Bava Basra, 120a: It implies that the prohibition of Hasavas Nachalah was confined to that generation only
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(and the decree came to an end on CHamishah-Asar be'Av - Ta'anis, 10b).
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Since when is a woman who inherits forbidden to marry into a different tribe than that of her father?
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Rashi (on 27:7), Ramban and Targum Yonasan: The prohibition of marrying into a different tribe ("Lo Sisov Nachalah")
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was restricted to that generation only.
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Ramban (citing Bava Basra, 120a): At the time, the B'nos Tzelofchad were the only women in that generation who inherited, which explains why they were the only family to lodge a complaint.
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How will we reconcile "la'Tov be'Eineihen Tih'yenah le'Nashim" (implying anyone they fancied) with "ve'Lo Sisov Nachalah" in Pauk 7?
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Bava Basra, 120a: By interpreting "Lo Sisov Nachalah" regarding the B'nos Tz'lofchad, not as a command,
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but as a piece of advice,
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Oznayim la'Torah (citing the Rashbam in Bava Basra, 120a): The Pasuk is referring to the advice that Hashem - the Father of orphans - gave the B'nos T'lofchad,
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who had no parents to advise them, that their cousins were the most suitable men.
As opposed to any other daughter of that generation who inherited from her father and for whom "ve'Lo Sisov Nachalah" in Pasuk 9 was a prohibition. See Oznayim la'Torah.
Why was the Torah not similarly concerned regarding an heiress who was already married, or a woman whose father or brothers would die later (leaving behind no sons) after she already married into a different tribe?
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Ramban #1: The Torah was only concerned about something that was rectifiable, which those cases were not. And it did not want to change the laws of inheritance in such a case by prohibiting her husband or her son from inheriting her.
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Ramban #2: Pasuk 5 and Pasuk 6 are talking about two different Mitzvos.
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Pasuk 5 is a prohibition against an heiress marrying into a different tribe, whereas Pasuk 6 teaches that if a woman marries into a different tribe and then inherits property, her sons or husband do not inherit her.
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