1)

Why does the Torah mention lighting a fire over and above all the other Melachos?

1.

Rashi #1 and Ramban #1 (citing Shabbos, 70a): According to R. Yossi, it is to teach us that lighting a fire is only a La'av and is not subject to Kareis.

2.

Rashi #2 and Ramban #2 (Ibid.): According to R. Nasan, it is to teach us that one is Chayav on Shabbos for each Melachah that one transgresses - and not only if one transgresses all thirty-nine.

3.

Ramban #3 and Rashbam: To teach us that the prohibition of Melachah on Shabbos extends even to Ochel Nefesh. 1

4.

Seforno: To teach us that one is Chayav, 2 even though lighting a fire is normally a Kilkul (destructive), for which one is generally Patur on Shabbos,

5.

Moshav Zekenim (citing Bechor Shor), Da'as Zekenim and Hadar Zekenim: Becouse lighting a fire does not seem seem to be a Melachah (and people would therefore say, 'Let us make a fire or prepare coals on Shabbos, so that we can work in gold and silver after Shabbos' - Da'as Zekenim and Hadar Zekenim).

6.

Moshav Zekenim (citing the Rosh): Because it is a Melachah that everyone need to perform.

7.

Erech Apayim 2 (va'Yosef Avraham 5, from the Zohar): Because "Eish" refers to anger, and even though it is always forbidden, on Shabbos one may not display anger on one's face [even if he feels calm].

8.

Kli Yakar (citing Shabbos, 11b): It hints at the punishment for Chilul Shabbos - conflagration. 3 9: Shabbos, 20a: It teaches us that the prohibition of lighting a fire (and burning on it) is confined to private use, but is permitted with regard to burning the fat-pieces and limbs of Korbanos.


1

Rashbam: As opposed to Yom-Tov, where lighting a fire in order to cook is permitted (See Sh'mos 12:16), regarding Shabbos, the Torah, in Sh'mos 16:23, requires that one prepares one's food before Shabbos. See also Ramban.

2

Seforno: This is because lighting a fire is needed for the performance of most other Melachos.

3

Ramban: As the Navi specifically writes in Yirmiyah, 27:17.

2)

Why does the Torah add "be'Chol Moshvoseicham"?

1.

Shabbos, 20a: To extrapolate that one may light a fire to burn the limbs and the fat-pieces that go on the Mizbe'ach. 1

2.

Yevamos, 6b: To teach us, via Gezeirah Shavah from Masei, 35:29 "Vahayu Eileh lachem le'Chukas Mishpat le'Doroseichem" that just as 'Moshvos' there is referring to Beis-Din, so too, here, and that consequently, Misas Beis-Din (S'reifah) does not override Shabbos. 2


1

See Torah Temimah, note 6.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 7.

3)

Seeing as the Torah is talking about Shabbos, why does it add the words "be'Yom ha'Shabbos"?

1.

Yerushalmi Beitzah, 5:2: To extrapolate that on Yom-Tov on is permitted to light a fire. 1

2.

Mechilta: To extrapolate that one is permitted to light a fire on Erev Shabbos even though it continues to burn on Shabbos. 2


1

See Torah Temimah, note 8.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 9. Perhaps it comes to counter the Tzedokim, who ate only cold food on Shabbos, and who presumably by the same token, sat in the dark on Shabbos night.

4)

Why do we not say "Kol ha'Oseh vo Melachah Yumas" is a Klal, "Lo Seva'aru" is a Prat, and a 'K'lal u'Ferat' teaches only the P'rat, but not any other Melachah?

1.

Moshav Zekenim: Because, since the Torah does not write 'Kol ha'Oseh Kol Melachah Yumas', it cannot be coming to teach us about the Klal.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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