What is "Zos ha'Aretz" coming to preclude?
Rashbam: It precludes the lands that Hashem added to the Shevu'ah that He made to Avraham.
Targum Yonasan: With reference to 34:3:5:1 - it means that this the end of the history of Eretz Yisrael.
Why does the Torah insert the words "Leimor"?
Rashi: To instruct Moshe to go and inform Avraham, Yitzchak and Ya'akov that Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu has kept the promise that He made to them (to teach us that the dead communicate with each other - Sotah, 13b).
Yerushalmi B'rachos, 2:3: To instruct Moshe to go and inform the Avos that Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu had fulfilled wth their children all the conditions He had made with them (to teach us that Tzadikim, even after deaths, are called 'alive' - Yerushalmi, ibid).
Why did Hashem show Moshe Eretz Yisrael?
Rashi #1: Refer to 34:4:2:1*.
Rashi #2: Refer to 32:52:2:1.
Ramban: Knowing Moshe's intense love for Eretz Yisrael, Hashem showed him the land in all its goodness in order to make him happy.
Seforno: In order to bless it. 1
Refer to Bamidbar 27:13:152:1,2 & 4.
We find that some of his B'rachos pertain to that tribe's portion in Eretz Yisrael (for example. "umi'Meged Tevu'os Shamesh" - 33:14 (PF).
Why did Hashem add the (otherwise superfluous) phrase "ve'Shamah Lo Sa'avor"?
Rashi: Refer to 34:4:2:1*.
Seforno: Refer to 34:4:3:3. Because had he entered Eretz Yisrael, his B'rachah would have prevented it from ever being destroyed. 1
Bamidbar Rabah (23:5): With reference to Gehinom - Moshe was worried that he might go to Gehinom, so Hashem assured him that he will not.
Seforno: Whereas the decree had already been issued that when their measure was full, they would go into exile - See for example Nitzavim, 30:18 and Vayeilech, 31:16. Refer also to Bamidbar 20:12:3:2*.
Why does the Torah not insert the Beis-Hamikdash, something that Moshe specifically asked to see - at the beginning of Va'eschsnan?
Oznayim la'Torah: Yerushalayim is included in "Eretz Yehudah" and the Beis-Hamikdash, in the words "Ad ha'Yam ha'Acharon" - both in Pasuk #2. 1 .
This answer is inadequate however, since it minimises the importance of the Beis-Ha'mikdash, when it was surely uppermost in Moshe's mind.
Why does he Torah write here "ve'Shamah Lo Sa'avor" whereas in Ha'azinu, 32:52, it wrote "ve'Shamah Lo Savo"?
Sifri (in Ha'azinu 341): Following Moshe's request that if he cannot enter Eretz Yisrael as king, he should be permitted to enter as a commoner; if he cannot enter alive, he should be permitted to enter dead! Hashem replied "ve'Shamah Lo Savo", "ve'Shamah Lo Sa'avor" - 'You cannot enter as a king nor as a commoner, neither alive nor dead!'
