This Pasuk seems to be repetition of what it just said. What is it coming to teach us?
Oznayim la'Torah: Refer to 34:2:5:1. The Torah is teaching us that the two and a half tribes received their portion in Eiver ha'Yarden without lots - because it was in Eiver ha'Yarden, which did not flow with milk and honey like Eretz Yisrael and was far from the center of the land, which is why the rest of Yisrael agreed unanimously that the two and a half tribes should receive it, and it was therefore not necessary to cast lots. 1
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "me'Eiver le'Yarden Yereicho"?
Bechoros, 55a: To teach us that, like Yereicho, the River Yarden is considered part of Eretz Cana'an. 1
Why does the Torah use the double expression "Keidmah Mizrachah"?