What does the Torah mean when it adds "va'Y'aneha"?
Rashi (from Midrash Rabah 80:5): It means that he also had unnatural relations with her. 1
Ramban: The Torah is actually praising Dinah, by telling us that even though the perpetrator was a prince, Dinah considered it a torment, and did not consent to the act.
Moshav Zekenim: Any Bi'ah against a woman's will is called 'affliction.'
Yoma 77b: He afflicted her from other Bi'os. 2
Ohr ha'Chayim: Even though he had Bi'ah with her normally, and it is natural for a woman to enjoy it, for her it was affliction. 'Hana'ah' from Resha'im is painful for Tzadikim.
Moshav Zekenim queries this, for a Derashah teaches that also this is considered Bi'ah.
Rashi (Yoma ibid.): He did not fulfill for her Onah (intimacy at the proper time) during the time she was with him. Ha'amek Davar - she was with him only a short time! Rather, because he raped her, she would not find a proper Zivug afterwards. She refused to leave until Shimon agreed to marry her. Maharsha (ibid. based on the Rambam) - forbidden Bi'ah is called Inuy. Rashi - if so, it should have said 'he afflicted her through (and not from) other Bi'os'!
Why does the Torah mention that he was Nasi ha'Aretz, and publicize the debacle of Yaakov's daughter?
Moshav Zekenim: This shows the praise of Yaakov. Shechem and his father were princes, yet he felt honored to cling to Yaakov.
Refer to 34:2:1:2.
Ohr ha'Chayim: She screamed, but no one answered (due to Shechem's importance).
Malbim: Because he was Nasi, no one could stop him.
Why does it say that he saw her?
Malbim: He did not speak lewd matters to her. Rather, he saw her and took her immediately. He sinned in three ways. (a) He took her forcefully. (b) He defiled her, for he is an Arel. (c) He afflicted her (forced her to have Bi'ah).
What do we learn from "va'Yikach Osah va'Yishkav Osah"?
Ha'amek Davar: He took her to his house, and forced her to have Bi'ah. When the girl consents, it says va'Yishkav Imah.
