In view of the Pasuk in Ki Seitzei, 20:16 "Lo Sechayeh Kol Neshamah", why does the Torah write "ve'Horashtem es Yoshvei ha'Aratz" and not 've'Tam'isu' or 've'Tashchisu'?
Oznaym la'Torah #1: Because Yehoshua gave the Cana'anim the option of fleeing - in which case no harm would befall them. 1
Oznayim la'Torah #2 (in Pasuk 56): So that, when the Torh writes in Pasuk 56 've'Hayah kasher Damisi La'asos leham E'eseh lachem", it imlies only Galus; whereas had is said 've'Tam'isu' or 've'Tashchisu', it would have implied annihalation, Chas ve'Shalom.
Oznayim la'Torah: And indeed, the Girgashi fled and Hashem gave them the land of Africa aas an inheritance.
What is the difference between "Maskiyosam" and "Tzalmei Maseichosam"?
Rashi, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: "Maskiyosam" is a stone (marble) floor on which the nations used to prostrate themselves to Avodah-Zarah, whereas "Tzalmei Maseichon" are idols made of metal.
