Why does the Torah juxtapose this Pasuk to that of Nedarim?
Riva, Hadar Zekenim and Rabeinu Bachye: Because, when Moshe heard "Lo Yachel Devaro" ? implying that others can pardon him, he thought that perhaps the Shevu'ah prohibiting him fted. Hashem therefore informed him that he had erred, and that immediately after the battle with Midyan he would die. 1
Ba?al ha?Turim #1: To teach us that one should make Nedarim in time of war.
Ba?al ha?Turim #2: To extrapolate that, if a man who is silent and who does not annul the Neder of hi daughter or his wife is punished in her place, 2 how much more so did Midyan, who caused Yisrael to sin, need to be punished.
Why did Hashem command Moshe to avenge Yisrael from the Midyanim and not from the Mo'avim, who also caused Yisrael to sin?
Rashi #1 and Ramban (in 25:18): Because, whereas the Mo'avim entered the foray out of fear, 1 the Midyanim, who were not threatened, involved themselves in an issue that did not concern them.
Rashi #2 (citing Bava Kama, 38b): Because Yisrael were forbidden to fight Amon and Mo'av on account of the two 'doves' that were destined to come from them 2 ? Rus ha'Mo'aviyah and Na'amah ha'Amonis. 3
Ramban (in 25:18): Because Hashem gave Amon and Mo'av to Lot, and Yisrael were therefore forbidden to take their land.
Hadar Zekenim: Because [Mo'av had reason to afflict Yisrael, since Yisrael took from Sichon what was initially their land.
Rashi: Seeing as, based on the Pasuk in Devarim, 2:9, Yisrael were forbidden to attack Mo'av, but permitted to plunder them.
According to the Yalkut Shimoni, it was on accont of David ha?Melech who was destined to come from them. See Torah Temimah, note 2, who elaborates
The wife of Shlomoh ha'Melech and mother of Rechav'am.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "Achar Te'asef" (See Torah Temimah, note 3)?
Nedarim, 37a: Although it is superfluous, it is added to enhance the Lashon. This is called 'Itur Lashon? and is Halachah le'Moshe mi'Sinai.
Sifri: To teach us the praiseworthiness of the leaders of Yisrael, who do not leave this world before they have avenged Yisrael ? which is synonymous wit avenging Yisrael. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 4,
Why did Hashem make Moshe?s death dependant upon the revenge of Midan?
Ba?al ha?Turim (citing the Yalkut Shimoni): Because he saw the act of Zimri and the Midyanim and failed to react.
Why did Hashem tell Moshe that he would die after the war against Midyan?
Refer to 31:3:1:1.
Moshav Zekenim: Hashem told Moshe that it was time for him to die, and when Moshe asked to first take vengeance against Midyan, because if he would die before Bil'am, perhaps Bil'am will curse Yisrael, 1 Hashem said 'I will fulfill your request'.
Sifri: 'This teaches us the praiseworthiness of the leaders of Yisrael, who do not leave this world before having avenged Yisrael which is synonymous with the revenge of Hashem. 2
Ramban and Oznayim la'Torah: Hashem was telling him, not that he would die after the war against Midyan, but that he would see the revenge of Midyan (and above all the death of Bil'am, enemy number one, and rejoice before he died - Oznayim la'Torah). 3
What is the source that he was unable to curse due to Moshe? Moshe was the humblest of men. Why would he assume that it was due to himself? (PF). Moshe's humility lay in the fact that, despitr his superlative qualities and capabilities - of which he was fully aware - he remained he humblest of men.
See Torah Temimah, note 4.
See Oznayim la'Torah, DH 'N'kom Nikmas B'nei YIsrael' #2..
