Why does the Torah write "ba'Boker" twice in connection with the Ketores?
Pesachim, 59a: To teach us that the Ketores precedes the placing of the limbs on the Mizbe'ach, 1 by which the Torah writes "ba'Boker" only once. 2
Yerushalmi B'rachos, 1:5 #1: To give a border to the morning (of Haneitz ha'Chamah). In other words, although "Boker" generally refers to Haneitz ha'Chamah, in the realm of Korbanos, it applies to Amud ha'Shachar or thereabouts. 3
Yerushalmi B'rachos, 1:5 #2: to teach the Kohanim to divide the Hadlakas Neiros into two and to perform some Avodah or other 4 in between.
See Torah Temimah, note 4.
In Pinchas, Bamidbar, 28:4. Placing the two blocks of wod on the Mizbe'ach preceded the removalof the ashes from the MIzbe'ach ha'Zahav - even though the Torah writes ""ba'Boker ba'Boker" by both of them. See Torah Temimah, citing Pesachim, Ibid. and note 5.
Hence the Gemara says in Yoma, 37b that someone who reads the Sh'ma with the men of the Mishmar is not Yotzei. See Torah Temimah, note 7.
See Torah Temimah, note 6 and refer to 30:7:0.2:1.
What are the ramifications of the fact that the Torah juxtaposes the word "be'Heitivo" to "ba'Boker ba'Boker"?
Yoma, 33b: That is why the Kohanim divided the Hatavas Neiros into two parts - five 1 before the Ketores 2 and two after it.
Menachos, 50a: It teaches us that one consecrates the Menorah and the Mizbe'ach ha'Ketores with the kindling of the Menorah and burning the Ketores, 3 respectively, in the afternoon, because otherwise - if it was not consecrated on the previous afternoon, how could they make Hatavas ha'Neiros (cleaning it out) in the morning? 4
Yoma, 33b: Five - Because if the Kohen is already preparing the lights, he may as well prepare the majority; Not six - because the Torah writes "Beheitivo es ha'Neiros" (in the plural) - to be lit after the Ketores has been brought. Refer to 30:7:0:4:1.
See Torah Temimah, note 6.
See Torah Temimah, note 8.
See Torah Temimah, note 8.
What does the Torah mean when it writes "be'Heitivo es ha'Neiros Yaktirenah"? Which one came first?
Yoma, 14b: The Ketores preceded the Hatavas Sh'tei Neiros, and what the Pasuk means is 'when preparing the two) lamps the Ketores shall already have been brought on the Mizbe'ach'. 1
What is the meaning of "be'Heitivo es ha'Neiros"?
Rashi, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: It means "when he (Aharon) prepares the lamps - by cleaning the lamp-holders and removing the burnt-out wicks (which the Kohen did each morning)".
What is the definition of "Neiros"?
Rashi: It means 'lamp-holders' - except when it is accompanied by 'Ha'ala'ah', when it refers to the wicks.
"Vehiktir alav Aharon Ketores Samim". Does this mean that thee Mitzvah of burning the Ketores had to be performed by the Kohen Gadol?
Ramban #1: In fact, any Kohen could burn the Ketores. And it is only because in Pasuk 10 the Torah referred to Aharon atoning on the K'ranos of the Mizbe'ach ha'Ketores on Yom Kipur,that it mentions him here as well.
Ramban #2: Because the Torah wants Aharon to be the first to burn the Ketores. 1
Da'as Zekenim and Hadar Zekenim: The Mishnah in Yoma 2:4 discusses a lottery to decide which Kohen should burn the Ketores 2 - a clear proof that all Kohsnim were eligible to burn the Ketores. 3
Ramban: And it is for the same reason that it mentions Aharon in the following Pasuk - as well as in Emor, Vayikra, 4:3 - in connection with kindling the lights of the Menorah, even though any Kohen was eligible to do so
To enable all Kohanim to burn th Ketores at least once.
Da'as Zekenim: Moreover, all Kohanim are eligible to kindle the Menorah, since the Torah wrote at the beginning of the Parshah "Aharon u'Vanav" - and the current Pasuk equates the Ketores with the Menorah.
