Why does Moshe use the expression "Va'eschanan" rather than 'Va'espalel'?
Rashi #1: 'Chinun' is an expression of a free gift 1 - Moshe was not asking Hashem to answer him as a reward for his good deeds. Even though Tzadikim are not short of good deeds, they only ask Hashem for free gifts (Hashem's Chesed). 2
Rashi #2 (citing the Sifri), Ramban Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: It is a Lashon of Tefilah (one of the ten expressions of Tefilah, 'Techinah' which translates as 'supplication'
From the root of 'Chinam' (free).
Rashi: Based on Hashem's promise - in Sh'mos 33:19 "Vechanosi es asher Achon".
See also Ba'al ha'Turim.
According to the Oznayim la'Torah citing the G'ra, Moshe Davened one Tefilah which covered five hundred and fifteen issues. See Oznyim la'Torah on Pasuk 254, DH 'E'ebrah Na ve'Er'eh #1.
As the Pasuk writes in Mishlei, 18:23 "ve'Ashir Ya'aneh Azus."
As the Pasuk writes there "Tachanunim Yedaber Rash".
What is the connection between this Parshah and the previous one?
Ramban: With reference to "ba'Eis ha'Hi" in Pasuk 21, where, after discussing the defeat of Sichon and Og, Moshe prepared Yehoshua not to be afraid of the Cana'anim, he adds that he (Moshe) will not merit to enter Eretz Yisrael, since, when he Davened, Hashem did not answer his Daveners, but ordered him to strengthen Yehoshua.
What is the significance of the words "ba'Eis ha'Hi"?
Rashi and Ramban #2: After he had defeated Sichon and Og (nations that Hashem gave to Yisrael, and had distributed their land to two of the tribes - Ramban), 1 Moshe thought that perhaps Hashem had pardoned him and cancelled the Neder 2 (prohibiting him from entering Eretz Yisrael). 3
Rashbam: It implies that Moshe did not Daven immediately when the decree was issued. 6
See Bamidbar 20:10.
See Sifsei Chachamim.
Ramban: When Hashem instructed him to ascend Har ha'Avarim (Pinchas Bamidbar, 27:12) and see the land.
Ramban: See 1:37.
Only the Tefilah that Hashem did answer (See Pinchas Bamidbar, 27:12 and 16-17), to which Moshe now will refer in Pasuk 28.
Rashbam: Due to the Mishnah in Avos, 4:18 'Al Tish'al lo be'Sha'as Nidro'. And as a reward (for his patience), Hashem told him that, whereas other Meisim go to Gehinom, he would 'ascend to the top of Pisgah' and view the land from there.
Why did Moshe add the word "Leimor"?
Rashi: This is one of three (four - Rashi in Beha'aloscha)a 1 locations where Moshe told Hashem that he refuses to leave Him until He informs him whether He will fulfill his request or not.
See Sifsei Chachamim and refer to Bamidbar, 12:13:1:1*.
Why did Moshe mention his (unanswered) Tefilah here?
Ramban: To rebuke Yisrael for causing him to lose the right to enter Eretz Yisrael, the land that he longed to see. 1
Ramban (on Pasuk 24): In fact, this is the last of Moshe's rebukes. From chapter 4, he begins to elaborate on the Mitzvos - not to add to them and not to subtract from them.
Why did Moshe not also Daven on behalf of Aharon - when Hashem instructed him to ascend Hor ha'Har together with him and Elazar?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because he only Davened for himself aftfer he had defeated Sichon and Og and had good reason to believe that Hashem's Neder had been annulled. 1 And this did not yet apply when Aharon died a few months earlier.
Oznayim la'Torah #2: At the same tme that Hashem informed him that Aharon was destined to die, He also instructed him to transfer the Kehunah Gedolah to Aharon's son Elazar, and, since the time had come for Elazar to take over the Kehunah Gedolah, Aharon could not encroach on his position even for one moment.
Because, since Hashem commanded Moshe to take Aharon up the mountain and to transfer the Kehunah Gedolah to Elazar, he was obligated to carry out Hashem's command and Daven would have been inappropriate.
See Rashi DH 'ba'Eis ha'Hi'.
