Why does the Torah juxtapose the current Pasuk to "Kol ha'Noge'a ba'Mizbe'ach Yikdash"?
Rashi: Because the previous Pasuk taught us that if a Pasul Korban was taken up on the Mizbe'ach, it is sacrificed and the current Pasuk now confines it 1 to 'Pesulo ba'Kodesh' (where the P'sul ocurred on an animal that was eligible to go on the Mizbe'ach - like the Olah mentioned here) 2 when it entered the Azarah and that became Pasul only afterwards, 3 to preclude an animal that had Bi'ah with a person before it entered the Azarah, one that was Muktzah 4 or Ne'evad, or a T'reifah), all of which are taken down from the Mizbe'ach.
Moshav Zekenim: We do not exclude from "ve'Zeh", since it teaches that Moshe had difficulty understanding laws of Shechitah (Hagramah), and Hashem had to show him (Menachos 29a).
In fact, the Gemara in Zevachim, 83b learns it from "Olah" in Pasuk 18 or elsewhere. See Torah Temimah, note 29, who elaborates.
Such as Lan (an animal that was not on the Mizbe'ach at dawn), Yotzei (that was taken outside the Azarah after the blood was sprinkled), one that became Tamei or that was slaughtered with the intention of eating it after the time-limit has expired or outside the designated location.
Designated to be worshipped for Avodah-Zarah. .
Seeing as the Korban Tamid will be discussed in Parshas Pinchas, why does the Torah mention it here?
Rashi (in Bamidbar 28:4): Because, wheres the Pasuk here is speaking specifically in connection with the Milu'im, the Pasuk on in Pinchas is discussing it for all generations. 1
Oznayim la'Torah: To point out the distinction between the Mizbe'ach ha'Olah, whhich is designated for Korbanos, Menachos and Nesachim, and the Mizbe'ach ha'Ketores, which follows.
Da'as Zekenim: 'For all generations' means other Milu'im, i.e. in the days of Ezra and when the third Mikdash will be built. Alternatively, Rashi means 'Milu'im' Stam incorporating the days of Moshe and afterwards.
Why does the Torah insert the word "ve'Zeh"?
