Why does the Torah not insert 'Chag' on Shavu'os like it does by all the other Yamim-Tovim?
What are the implications of "Minchah Chadashah"?
Menachos, 84b: It implies that it is the first Korban to be brought from the new wheat harvest 1 of that year.
Menachos (Ibid.): And we learn from the fact that it repeats "Chadashah" - here and in Emor, Vayikra, 23:16, that the prohibition of bringing any Korban of the current year's wheat before the Sh'tei ha'Lechem exends to a Korban of barley (the Korban of a Sotah. See also Torah Temimah, note 55.
Why does the Torah refer to Shavu'os as "Yom ha'Bikurim"?
Rashi: Because on Shavu'os they brought the Sh'tei ha'Lechem, which comprised wheat from the first crops of the year.
Chizkuni: Because from Shavu'os and onwards one may bring Bikurim to the Mikdash.
Why does the Torah call the Sh?tei ha?Lechem ?Bikurim??
Rashi (in Pesachim, 36b): Because they permit Korbanos from the new crops and regular Bikurim to be brought to the Beis-Hamikdash
What are the connotations of "be'Shavu'oseichem"?
Seforno: It means for the sake of the weeks Chukos of Katzir that I guarded for you' (that the barley and wheat will ripen i time for the Omer and the Sh'tei ha'Lechem). 1
Targum Yonasan: It means 'at the end of the seven-week period (of Sefiras ha'Omer).
Seforno: And we find that the prefix 'Beis' means for the sake of also in Acharei-Mos Vayikra, 17:11 - "be'Nefesh Yechaper" and in Shmuel 2, 3:26 - "be'Dam Asa'el".
