1)

Why did Hashem insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "ve'Sha'al lo ... "?

1.

Yoma, 73a: To teach us that one does not ask the Urim ve'Umim in a loud voice (so that others can hear), 1 though ?Vesha?al? implies a verbalized request. 2 ?


1

See Torah Temimah, note 36.

2

Yoma, ibid.: Like we find by Chanah, in Shmuel 1, 1: 13 ?ve?Chanah hi Medabere al Libah?.

2)

What are the connotations of the word ?Vesha?al lo be?Mishpat ha?Urim??

1.

Rashi: Refer to Sh?mos, 28:16:1:1.

2.

Yoma, 73a: It teaches us that, as opposed to the prophecy of a Navi, the prophecy of the Urim ve?Tumim cannot 1 be rescinded. 2

3.

Yerushalmi Shabbos, 2:6: It teaches us that, when Yisrael go to war, Beis-Din shel Ma?alah convene and judged them as to whether they deserve to win or to lose 3 - and we learn from here that 'The Satan only prosecutes in time of danger'.


1

A negative prophecy - if the people do Teshuvah

2

See Torah Temimah, note 37.

3

See Torah Temimah, note 39.

3)

Why are they called ?Urim??

1.

Yoma, Because they illuminate their words ? in that their message lit-up on the stones of the Choshen.

4)

?al-Piv Yeitz?u ve?al-Piv Yavo?u?. By whose mouth?

1.

By the mouth (command) of either Elazar, or the Urim ve?Tumim, or Yehoshua (the king). 1


1

Refer to 27:21:5:1-4.

5)

Why did Hashem say this to Moshe and not to Yehoshua himself (See Sifsei Chachamim)?

1.

Rashi: In answer to Moshe's request, Hashem is informing him that the Kavod of leadership would not be completely removed from his family, since even Yehoshua would need Elazar. 1


1

Who was his nephew, and to whom the Torah also referred as his son (Refer to 3:1:1:1).

6)

How come that Yehoshua never needed the services of Elazar?

1.

Eruvin, 63a: It was a punishment for Elazar because he Paskened in front of his Rebbe (Moshe) - when he addressed the soldiers who returned from the war against Midyan and taught them the Dinim of Kashering Keilim. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 35.

7)

What decisions is the Torah referring to here?

1.

Rashi: It is referring to going out to war, which required the decision of Elazar via the Urim ve'Tumim and permission from the Sanhedrin. 1

2.

Rashi #2: It is referring to the Urim ve'Tumim. Refer to Sh?mos, 28:30:4:1:1.

3.

Targum Yonasan: a. Yehoshua will first consult the Urim ve'Tumim via Elazar, who will then announce when to go to war 2 and b. They will come before Yehoshua for litigation. 3

4.

Yerushalmi Sanhedrin 2:5: It is referring to Yehoshu?a (the king) consulting the Urim ve'Tumim with regard to a Milchemes ha'Reshus. 4


1

Rashi: To whom "Kol ha'Eidah" refers.

2

See answer #4 and note.

3

See Na'ar Yonasan.

4

See Torah Temimah, note 40. Implying that a Milchemes Mitzvah (against Amalek and against the seven nations of Cana?an ? Torah Temimah) does not require consultation.

8)

What are the implications of the term "ke'Mishpat ha'Urim"?

1.

Yoma, 73b: It implies that, although the prediction of a Navi can be rescinded, 1 that of the Urim ve'Tumim is not.

2.

Yerushalmi Shabbos, 2:6: It teaches us that, whenever Yisrael went to war, Beis-Din shel Ma'alah convened to discuss whether they were worthy of success or not. And we learn from here that 'The Satan only prosecutes in time of danger'. 2


1

A negative prophecy - If the people do Teshuvah.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 37.

9)

Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) end of the Pasuk "Hu ve'Chol B'nei Yisrael ito ve'Chol ha'Eidah"?

1.

Yoma, 73b: In order to Darshen that "Hu", refers to the king, "ve'Chol B'nei Yisrael ito", to the Mashu'ach Milchamah (the Kohen Gadol for war), and "ve'Chol ha'Eidah", to the Sanhedrin - to teach us that one only consults the Urim ve'Tumim on behalf of the king, the Av Beis-Din and someone whom the Tzibur needs. 1


1

See Torh Temimah, note 41, who elaborates at length.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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