Why does the Torah need to add the words "la'Asher lo Achuzas ha'Aretz" (the original owner)?
Rashi: Because we might otherwise have thought that, when the Yovel arrives, the field goes back to the Gizbar, who actually sold it to the purchaser.
Having written "la'Asher lo Achuzas ha'Aretz", why does the Torah need to insert "la'asher Kanahu me'Ito"?
Rashi (in Gitin, 48a) and Rashbam: It refers to the owner. 1
Erchin, 26a: To teach us that in a case where a Kohen received the field after it went to the Kohanim in the Yovel and the purchser who bought it from the Kohen declared it Hekdesh, when the second Yovel arrives, it goes back to the Kohen - and not to the original owner. 2
