Why does the Torah insert the words "Ve'amarta aleihem"?
Sifra: To incorporate Geirim and Avadim in the Din of Ma'arich.
What is the meaning of "Ish ki Yafli Neder"?
Rashi, Rashbam and Targum Yonasan: It means a man who expresses a Neder. 1
R. Bachye: "Yafli" is a ashon of 'wondrous' - like 'P'la'os Chochmah' - because it stems from the Midah of Chochmah, placing it on a higher level than Shevu'ah. 2
Temurah, 2b: "Ki Yafli" incorporates a 'Mufla ha'Samuch le'Ish' - a boy of twelve or of thirteen who has not yet grown two pubic hairs. 3
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "Ish ki Yafli Lindor Neder"?
Why does the Torah add a second 'Chaf'' in the word "be'Erk'cha"?
Rashi (in Pasuk 3): 'I do not know the reason for the extra 'Chaf''. 1
Rashbam (in Pasuk 3): The Torah sometimes doubles letters. 2
R. Bachye #1: The Torah tends to add a 'Kaf', both at the beginning 3 at the middle 4 and at the end 5 of a word.
R. Bachye #2 (according to Kabalah): It represents the Kisei ha'Kavod, from which the Nefesh ha'Sichlis of man is formed and to which the Nefashos of Tzadikim will return. 6
Sifsei Kohen: Because, from Hashem's perspective, the value of a Neshamah, which comes from under the Kisei ha'Kavod, is without limit. The Torah is therefore insinuating that "be'Erk'cha" - any fixed value is only from your perspective. 7
Erchin, 4b #1: It incorporates where someone declares 'Erech S'tam alai' without specifying, to teach us that he is Chayav to pay Hekdesh the smallest Erech (three Shekalim). 8
Erchin, 4b #2: It precludes where someone declares the Erech of a limb on which one's life does not depend 9 from the Din of Erchin. 10
See Ikar Sifsei Chachamim.
Rashbam: Like people say 'Admumis' - instead of 'Adom', and 'Lavnunis' instead of 'Lavan' (See also 13:42 & 49).
R. Bachye: To compare, as in Bereishis 3:5 "Vih'yisem k'Elokim".
R. Bachye: As in "Anochi", where the Torah adds a Chaf on to 'Ani'.
R. Bachye: as in Pasuk 12 "ke'Erk'cha ha'Kohen".
See R. Bachye who elaborates.
Sifsei Kohn: As the Torah states in Pasuk 8 "ve'Im Mach Hu me'Erkecha".
See Torah Temimah, note 10, who elaborates.
See Torah Temimah, note 11.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "b'Erkecha Nefashos"?
Rashi: To include a case where a person declares the Erech, not of a whole person, but of a major limb, without which the person cannot live 1 - (such as the heart or liver) in which case he must pay his full Erech.
R. Bachye (citing Midrash Tanchuma): Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu said to Yisrael 'If you bring before Me Me Erchin, I will consider it as if you brought before Me Your Neshamos! On the merit of Erchin I will save you from Gehinom 2 and arrange before you a table in the world to come!' 3
Erchin, 4b #2: To preclude a dead person from the Din of Erchin. 4
Erchin, 4b: It implies that even if one person declares the Erech of a hundred people simultaneously, they all take effect. 5
Erchin, 5b: To incorporate women in the Din of Erchin. 6
Erchin, 20a: To incorporate someone who is disgusting and a leper in the Din of Ne'erachim. 7
Which the Gemara refers to as 'Nidun bi'Chevodo'. See Torah Temimah, note 12.
R. Bachye: As the Navi writes in Yeshayah 30:33 "ki Aruch me'Esmol Tafteh".
R. Bachye: As the Pasuk writes in Tehilim 23:5 "Ta'aroch Lefanai Shulchn".
See Torah Temimah, note 13.
See Torah Temimah note 14.
See Torah Temimah note 3.
See Torah Temimah, citing Erchin and note 15.
"be'Erk'cha Nefashos la'Hashem". Why is "Nefashos" written missing a 'Vav'?
R. Bachye: With reference to 27:3:2:4 - it teaches us that not all Nefashos return to Hashem (only those of Tadikim). 1
R.Bache: As the Gemara states in Succah 45b 'Ra'isi B'nei Aliyah ve'Hein Mu'atin'.
If this Parshah was said at Har Sinai - as the Torah testifies in Pasuk 34, why did the Torah not insert it in B'har?
Ramban and Moshav Zekenim: Because, although some of the Pesukim are connected to the Yovel, 1 the Torah prefers to discuss all the Dinim of Neder together.
Seforno: Refer to 26:46:1:1*.
Ramban: Such as those that deal with the sanctification of fields that one purchases and that one inherits.
"Ish ki Yafli ? ". What are the implications of "Ish"?
Erchin 5b #1: "Ish" implies that even Nochrim 1 can be Ne'erach (assessed).
Erchin 5b #2 (according to R. Yehudah): "Ish" teaches us that even Nochrim can be Ma'arich.
See Torah Temimah, note 1.
What are the connotations of "B'nei Yisrael" and of "Ish"?
Erchin 5b #1 (according to R. Meir): "Bnei Yisrael" teaches us that Yisrael can be Ma'arich 1 (pledge Erchin), but not Nochrim, 2 whereas "Ish" teaches us that even Nochrim 3 can be Ne'erach (assessed).
Erchin 5b #2 (according to R. Yehudah): "B'nei Yisrael" teaches us that Yisrael can be Ne'erach, but not Nochrim, whereas "Ish" teaches us that even Nochrim can be Ma'arich.
Rosh: This is a merit for Yisrael - in that through giving the value of their souls, Hashem will save them from the birth-pangs of Mashi'ach and Gehinom, about which the Navi writes in Yeshayah 30:33 "Aruch me'Esmol Tafteh" ('for hell has been prepared from yesterday'). And correspondingly, the Pasuk writes in Tehilim 23:5 - "Ta'aroch Lefanai Shulchan" ('And I will set a table in front of you').
Temurah, 3a: This also precludes Hekdesh animals belonging to Nochrim from making a Temurah.
See Torah Temimah, note 1.
