"Lifnei HaSh-m" is not mentioned anywhere else in the Parshah. Why did Rivkah insert it specifically here?
Rashi and Rashbam: Yitzchak meant that he would bless him with Hashem's consent. 1
Ramban: Rivkah was telling Ya?akov that the B?rachah that his father intended to give Eisav was given with Ru'ach ha'Kodesh, and should it go to Eisav, it will be forever and that he (Ya?akov) will be doomed.
Malbim: She told him not to think that the B?rachah will not take effect, seeing as Yitzchak had Eisav in mind. Nevu'ah is only to reach Hashem's desire. If Hashem puts in Yitzchk?s mouth to bless Ya?akov, Yitzchak's intent for Eisav would not prevent it from takng efectg, just like one who mistakenly seeded barley instead of wheat - Barley will sprout in spite of his error. Yitzchak ass merely the conduit for Hashem's B?rachah.
Thereby turning it into a Divine blessing. (Even though the Torah does not record that Yitzchak said so, as the Yerushalmi says in Rosh Hashanah 3:5, ?The words of the Torah are poor in one place and rich in another?.
Yitzchak had said "va'Aseh Li Mat'amim... v'Havi'ah Li." Why did Rivkah switch the order?
Ha'amek Davar: Indeed, Yitzchak commanded Esav to bring the animal alive to Yitzchak's house, and prepare it there. (Do not worry lest he bring promptly what was already prepared.) Perhaps Yitzchak normally did not rely on what was cooked in Esav's house, for his wives were suspected to make him stumble in Isurim.
Why is there a Hei at the end of "va'Avarechecha"?
Ha'amek Davar: The Yerushalmi 1 says that this teaches 'you, and no other' - Also here, [Yitzchak intends that], the Berachos will be only for Esav, and not for you.
Sukah 4:3, regarding "u'Lechah Lishu'asah Lanu" (Tehilim 80:3).
