Why did Yitzchak begin the B'rachah with a 'Vav' ("Ve'yiten l'cha ... ")?
1.
Rashi #1: He blessed Ya'akov that Hashem should give him, again and again.
2.
Rashi #2: It is a continuation to the previous Pasuk - 'Besides the beautiful aroma that Hashem already blessed you, may He will also give you from the dew of the Heaven....'
3.
Yerushalmi (B'rachos 5:2): The B'rachos that Hashem bestowed upon Avraham that were established for his descendants ('be'Daytiki') are now being handed down to Ya'akov
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(and not to Eisav).
4.
Ohr ha'Chayim: In addition to the higher world that Avraham chose for his children, which is the primary purpose of spiritual B'rachos, Hashem will also give [B'rachah] to you in this world.
Perhaps that is what prompted him - in Vayeitzei, Pesukim 28 20-22, tov Daven three times that the Midas ha'Din - Elokim - should be with him.
3)
Why did Yitzchak bless Ya'akov with "Veyiten l'cha ha'Elokim", whereas in the similar B'rachah to Eisav, he did not mention Elokim?
1.
Rashi: "Elokim" denotes Midas ha'Din - implying that Ya'akov
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will only merit the B'rachos if he deserves them. Whereas to Eisav - in Pasuk 39 - he will say "mi'Shemanei ha'Aretz Yih'yeh Moshavecha", whether he deserves it or not.
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2.
Teshuvos Beis ha'Levi, D'rush 3 DH u'va'Zeh (citing the Zohar): Becuse only Ya'akov receives directly from Hashem.
Even though he thought that he was blessing Eisav, he was unaware of the fact that Eisav was not worthy of the B'rachos, and that his words, therefore, were directed at the one who was in fact worthy.
Rashi: Shlomoh ha'Melech in Melachim I, Chapter 8, took his cue from Yitzchak, and applied the same distinction to a Jew and a Nochri who would pray in the Beis-ha'Mikdash. The reason for this is because, as opposed to a Jew, who understands that if his prayer is not accepted, it is because he is not worthy, a Nochri thinks that since he took the trouble to pray to Hashem, Hashem is obligated to respond favorably. So if, for some reason or other He doesn't, he turns his back on Him.
4)
What is the gist of the Berachah that Yitzchak was giving Yaakov? What is the significance of the "dew of the Heaven and the fat of the earth"?
1.
Rashi and Targum Onkelos: He blessed him literally with the dew of the Heaven....
2.
Targum Yonasan: He blessed him with 'the best of the dews from the Heaven, from the best of the underground springs and bountiful plants of the earth....'
3.
Ramban #1: That HaSh-m should give him from the dew of the Heaven and the fat of the earth - more than the norm.
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4.
Ramban #2: That He should give him from the dew of the Heaven and the fat of the earth, an abundance of grain and wine.
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5.
Ramban #3: Bearing in mind that what HaSh-m gives is forever, he blessed him that HaSh-m should give him from the dew of the Heaven forever, and that his land should be the most fruitful in the world.
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6.
Ramban #4 (citing the Ibn Ezra): That He should give him from the dew of the Heaven and from the fat of the earth.
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7.
Malbim: He gave to him three matters of wealth and possessions, and Berachos of authority and honor. The former are dew of Heaven, the fat of the earth, and much grain and wine.
Because the 'Mem' from "mi'Tal" extends to "Mish'manei..." (so that it reads "mi'Mishmanei ha'Aretz").
5)
Why did Yitzchak mention "mi'Tal ha'Shamayim" before "mi'Shemanei ha'Aretz" when he blessed Ya'akov, but reverse the order when he blessed Eisav - in Pesukim 27:39?
1.
Oznayim la'Torah: Because when, he blessed Ya'akov (thinking it was Eisav whom he believed to be a Tzadik), he intended him to receive the B'rachos only when he turns his eyes heavenwards and prays. Hence he began with 'Tal ha'Shamayim,' since his B'rachah comes, first and foremost, from the Heaven and only then from the earth; But when he subsequently blessed Eisav, whom he had discovered was a Rasha,
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he began with 'Shemanei ha'Aretz,' which he will receive whether he prays or not,
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and Hashem will bless his bountiful land.
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As the Pasuk writes in Devarim 28:12 "Vehilvisa Goyim Rabim, ve'Atah Lo SIlveh".
7)
Why is "ve'Sirosh" written without a 'Vav' (as if it was punctuated with a 'Kamatz'), but pronounced with a Cholam?
1.
Yoma 76b: To teach us that if Yisrael merit it, they will be on top ('Rosh' with a 'Vav'), and if they don't, they will be impoverished ('Rash').
8)
Why did Yitzchak not bless Ya'akov with children?
1.
Oznayim la'Torah: Because, although he considered Eisav to be a Tzadik, knowing that his Chiti wives worshipped idols and caused him and Rivkah much bitterness, he did not want him to have children who would not go in the ways of Hashem.
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Oznayim la'Torah: And he reserved that B'rachah for Ya'akov, later in the Parshah - in 28:2.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
9)
Rashi writes: "'And may He give to you' (v'Yiten Lecha) - May He give, and give again!" How is this implied?
1.
Mizrachi: Even without the conjunctive "and," the verse would mean that the same blessing should be granted again and again [no limitation on the blessing is stated]. The verse means that HaSh-m should give these Berachos, and then give Avraham's Berachos as well.
2.
Gur Aryeh: Yaakov was given a blessing without boundaries or limits; any blessing granted to Yaakov would lead to even more. This is indeed derived from the extra Vav, which does not connect to the previous verse.
10)
Rashi writes: "'From the dew of the heavens' - There are many homiletic Midrashim." Why does Rashi point this out?
1.
Gur Aryeh: We might be surprised at the brevity of these blessings, and their focus on food and the physical. Rashi therefore references the Midrashim, which expound the blessings in terms of the spiritual as well. Yitzchak had all of the interpretations in mind.
