What is "Eileh ha'Chukim ve'ha'Mishpatim ve'ha'Toros" referring to?
Seforno: It is referring to all the Mitzvos that are listed before Parshas Bechukosai. 1
Sifra: "ha'Chukim" refers to the Midrashos; "'ha'Mishpatim", to the Dinim, and "'ha'Toros", to the written and the oral Torah - to teach us that Hashem gave both Toros to Yisrael. And "be'Har Sinai be'Yad Moshe" teaches us that the entire Torah, with its Halachos, its Dikdukim (intricacies) and its explanations were all given to Moshe on Har Sinai.
Seforno: On which Hashem made a B'ris incorporating the B'rachos and the K'lalos in Bechukosai. And this is synonymous with the B'ris that the Torah refers to in Ki Savo Devarim, 28:69. It does not include Mitzvos which the Torah will discuss in the following chapter. They were also said at Har Sinai, as the Pasuk testifies at the end of the chapter, but not as part of the covenant.
Why does the Torah write "Toros" in the plural?
Rashi: Refer to 26:46:1:2.
What are the implications of the phrase "Beino u'Vein B'nei Yisrael"?
Seforno: It implies that Hashem undertook to bless Yisrael if they keep the Mitzvos, and Yisrael accepted upon themselves the K'lalos in the event that they don't.
Why does the Torah insert the words "be'Har Sinai be'Yad Moshe" here?
Rashbam: The Torah is reiterating what it wrote at the beginning of Behar "Vayedaber Hashem el Moshe b'Har Sinai", because the Parshiyos of B'har and Bechukosai both pertain to Sh'mitah and Yovel. 1
Rashbam: The Pesukim of B'har concern Shemitah and Yovel, sending away Avadim and returning fields. whereas the curses in Bechukosai are the result of the contravention of the Sh'mitos and Yovlos, as the Torah wrote earlier (Pasuk 35) "Kol Y'mei Hashamah Tishbos".
