What are the implications of "Venikra Shemo be'Yisrael ... "?
Rashi and Targum Yonasan: It implies that all those present should announce "Chalutz ha'Na'al!" 1
See Torah Temimah, note 168.
What are the ramifications of this Pasuk?
Yevamos, 44a #1: It implies that if a Yavam makes Chalitzah on one of his deceased brother's wives, both he and any other brother do not need to perform Chalitzah on her Tzarah. 1
Kidushin, 14a #1: It teaches us that once the Yevamah performs Chalitzah, she is permitted to remarry and does not require a Get. 2
Kidushin, 14a #2: It teaches us that a Yevamah goes out with Chalitzah and not with a Get 3 - which we would otherwise learn via a Kal Vachomer from Ishah, who does not go out with Chalitzah.
Oznayim la'Torah: After all the brothers declined to perform Yibum, the brother who performs Chalitzah is acting as a Shali'ach for all the brothers, Hence the term 'Beis Chalutz ha'Na'al'.
Seeing as Chalitzah is considered shameful - as implied by the announcement "Kachah Ye'aseh la'Ish asher Lo Yivneh ? " - nowadays, when it is a Mitzvah to perform Chalitzah, why does the Torah write "Venikra sh'mo be'Yisrael ? "?
Yerushalni Yevaos, 12:6: it also has connotations of praise, as we find in Vay'chi Bereishis "Yikarei bahem Sh'mi". 1
See Torah Temimah, note 147. The question remains however, "Kachah Ye'aseh la'Ish ?: is shameful.
Whatt are the connotations of "Beis Chalutz ha'Na'al'?
Oznayim la'Torah: After all the brothers declined to perform Yibum, the brother who perflorms Chalitzah is actine as a Shali'ach of all the brothers, Hence the term 'Beis Chalutz ha'Na'al'.
