Why does the Pasuk switch from singular ("Tzaror es ha'Midyanim") to plural ("ve'Hikisem osam")?
Moshav Zekenim and Ba'al ha'Turim (citing Midrash Rabah): It begins in the singular because it was Moshe's personal vengeance - since Midyan (Kozbi's father had commanded her to commit adultery specifically with the greatest among them - Moshe, 1 and switches to plural (Yisrael and and not Moshe himself), since Moshe grew up in Midyan, and it was not fitting for him to fight them personally.
Only Zimri took her and told her that he was equal to Moshe - Midrash.
?Tzaror es ha?Midyanim?. Seeing as the incident of Ba'al Pe'or was perpetrated by Mo'av, why does the Torah blame Midyan?
Rashi (on Pasuk 18): Because their daughters sinned together with the B?nos Mo?av.
Ramban and R. Bacbye: Because the plot to cause Yisrael to commit Z?nus and idolatry was devised by the elders of Midyan 1
Ramban: Whom Balak consulted - See Balak, 22:4 - in conjunction with Bil'am..
?Tzaror es ha?Midyanim?. Why does the Torah need to add ?ki Tzor?rim heim Lachem ? ??
R. Bachye: To teach us the principle ?If someone comes to kill you, beat him to the draw!?
