1)

Why does the Torah repeat "Yovel hi" again?

1.

Ramban: To teach us the reason for the prohibition against planting and harvesting mentioned in the previous Pasuk.

2.

Rosh Hashanah, 9b: To include Chutz la'Aretz in the Dinim of Yovel, with regard to the releasing of one's Eved Ivri. 1

3.

Kidushin, 48a: To preclude other Isurim from the transfer of the Isur on to whatever one purchases with it. 2

4.

Yerushalmi, Shevi'is, 4:7: To teach us that the produce of Shevi'is, like Shevi'is itself, is Kadosh. 3


1

See Torah Temimah, note 62.

2

Refer to 25:12:2:1.

3

See Torah Temimah, note 64.

2)

What are the impliications of the phrase "Kodesh Tih'yeh lachem"?

1.

Rashi: It implies us that, like Hekdesh, 1 the Kedushah of Yovel-fruits is transferred on to whatever one purchases with it. 2 Unlike Hekdesh however, the fruits themselves retain Kedushas Shevi'is. 3

2.

Oznayim la'Torah #1: It is a year where there are no owner and no serfs - where the sole owner is Hashem in whom everyone places their trust is indeed holy.

3.

Oznayim la'Torah #2: It places Yisrael on the level of Adam ha'Rishon prior to the sin, when all he had ro do was 'to till the land (via Tefilah) and to guard it' (via Torah-study). 4

4.

Sokah, 40b: It implies that, like Hekdesh, Sh'mitah produce can be redeemed either via selling or directly via Chilul. 5


1

See Torah Temimah, note 69.

2

Sukah, 40b: Whether by way of selling or by way of tredemption. See Torah Temimah, note 68.

3

Rashi: as Chazal derive from the word "Tih'yeh", 'be'Havayasah T'hei'. See Torah Temimah, note 67.

4

See Oznayim la'Torah DH 'Ki Yovel hi ... ', who elaborates.

5

See Torah Temimah, note 69 & 70.

3)

Why does the Torah write "Kodesh hi Lachem" amd not 'la'Hashem'?

1.

Kidushin, 53a: To teach us that if someone is Mekadesh a woman with the fruit of Shevi'is, the Kidushin is valid. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 71.

4)

What are the implications of the words "Min ha'Sadeh Tochlu ... "?

1.

Rashi: Via what remains in the field, one may eat what is in the house; 1 the moment it (any particular species) is no longer to be found in the field, one is obligated tp clear it out of the house. 2

2.

Ramban #1 (citing the Ibn Ezra): It implies that one may, however, eat what the field produces by itself - just like in the Sh'mitah year.

3.

Ramban #2 and Seforno: After prohibiting planting and harvesting in the Yovel because it is Kadosh, the Torah permits going into the field and eating the fruit together with the poor and with the animals, provided one desists from harvesting one's crops and grapes to bring in bulk onto the house or to place in the storehouses, as one does in other years. 3

4.

Rashbam: It implies that one may eat from what is in the field, but not from what one has gathered into the house - illegally.


1

Rashi: As we learned regarding Sh'mitah (Refer to 25:7:1:1). Ramban: According to this explanation, the end of the Pasuk is not connected to the beginning.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 72.

3

Refer also to 25:13:1:2.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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