What did Bil'am mean this time when he compared Yisrael to a lion and to a lioness?
Rashi (citing Targum Onkelos) and Targum Yonasan: He meant that they will settle in their land in safety like a lion and a lioness and that no nation will be able to frighten them. 1
Rashi (B'rachos, 12b): He meant that Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu guards them when they lie down and when they get up, 2 so that they are tranquil and peaceful like a lion and a lioness.
Targum Yonasan: Who would dare awaken a sleeping lion or lioness?
B'rachos, 12b: The similarity to "be'Shochb'cha u've'Kumecha" in the Sh'ma, warrants reciting Parshas Balak every day, and the reason that Chazal did not institute it in Shachris is because of Tircha de'Tzibura (not to burden the community).
Why did Bil'am switch the order of lioness and lion in 23:24, to lion and lioness?
Ba'al ha'Turim: Above, it is the way to go from strength to strength - first like a lioness and then like a lion; whereas here it hints at the passing of leadership from Moshe - the lion, to Yehoshua - the lioness. 1
Ba'al ha'Turim (citing Bava Basra, 75a) 'Moshe's face shone like the sun (?Shemesh? ? masculine), and Yehoshua's, like the moon (?Levanah? - feminine)'.
Why did Bil'am say "Mevarchecha Baruch", virtually the same expression as Hashem said to Avraham (in Bereishis 12:3)?
Targum Yonasan: Because whoever blesses them will be blessed - like Moshe the Navi, the leader of Yisrael, and whoever curses them will be cursed - like Bil'am ben Be'or.
Who will remain in the days of Mashi'ach.
Seforno: As the Pasuk intimates in Nitzavim Devarim, 30:9 - "Because Hashem will once again rejoice over you like He rejoiced over your forefathers".
Why did Bil'am put "Mevorachecha Baruch" before "ve'Orarecha Arur", in the reverse order of Yitzchak - in Toldos Bereishis, 27:29?
Refer to Bereishis 27:29:5:1-4. 1
Oznayim la'Torah: Yitzchak concluded with B'rachah, in order not to end on a negativr note, whereas Bil'am deliberately ended on a negattive note. 2
Oznayim la'Torah: To conform to the Pasuk in Koheles, 8:3 "Al Ta'amod be'Davar Ra".
Rashi (in Bereishis 27:29) writes that Yitzchak put the curse first, because Tzadikim first suffer, and enjoy tranquility at the end; for Resha'im, the order is reversed, like we find with Bil'am. But Hashem blessed Avraham, and began with "va'Avarchah Mevarchecha" (12:3)?
Ramban (in Bereishis 27:29): Because Hashem concluded "ve'Nivrechu V'cha Kol Mishp'chos ha'Adamah?", thereby beginning and ending with a B'rachah.
Rashi (in Bereishis 27:29) writes that Yitzchak put the curse first, because Tzadikim first suffer, and enjoy tranquility at the end, and Bil'am reversed the order. But Hashem commanded (Devarim 27:12 & 13) to give the B'rachos on Har Gerizim before the Kelalos on Har Eival?
Refer to Bereishis 27:29:5:3 & 4.
Moshav Zekenim (on Pasuk 19): There, they only stood for the curse. 1
How does this answer the question? The Levi'im blessed and cursed! (PF) 2. Refer also to 23:8:1:1*****
