Why does the Torah mention the men who were with him here?
Oznayim la'Torah: Refer to 24:10:1.1:1*.
Above (24:32), it says "ha'Anashim Asher Ito" (they were secondary to him). Why does it say here "ha'Anashim Asher Imo" (which implies equality)?
Malbim: At the time of eating, Eliezer did not conduct as if he was more important than them - "Ki Tov Lo Imach" - [your Eved Ivri] eats as good as you do. 1
Ha'amek Davar: Simchah is only when there is equality.
Even though the verse discusses an Eved Ivri, we learn from it that it is proper to treat slaves as equals regarding eating. Perhaps before the family agreed, Eliezer needed to assert his authority, lest the family try to bargain with the other men for better terms. Alternatively, now all were needed equally for a Minyan for Birkas Chasanim. (PF)
Why did Eliezer say, "send me (singular)"?
Ha'amek Davar: The custom was not to leave a married woman alone with someone that her husband does not rely on. If so, Rivkah could not stay there without Eliezer, so if he will go, also she must go.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "'And they stayed overnight' (va'Yalinu) - All instances of the term 'Linah' in the Torah mean for one night." Why is this so?
Gur Aryeh: Because nights are interrupted by the intervening days, one cannot subsume many nights into one term.
Rashi writes: "All instances of the term 'Linah' in the Torah mean for one night." But Rashi writes earlier (Rashi to 24:23) that Rivkah offered 'Lalun,' meaning to stay for many nights?
Gur Aryeh: In that instance, Rashi was explaining the change in terminology from Lalin to Lalun. However, the simple meaning of words based on "Linah" refers to one night only.
