What does the Torah mean when it writes "va'Yahafoch Hashem es ha'Kelalah li'Verachah"?
Rashi (in Balak, 24:6): From the Berachos that Bil'am blessed Yisrael we can extrapolate what he had in mind to curse them: 'They should not have Batei Keneisiyos and Batei-Midrashos ... ', 1 only Hashem turned the curses that he wanted to place upon Yisrael into Berachos
Sanhedrin 105b: Similarly, he wanted to curse them that the Shechinah should not rest on them - he said "Mishkenosecha Yisrael"; that their kingdom should not last ? "ki'Nechalim Nitayu" (Pasuk 6); that they should not have olives and vineyards - "ke'Ganos alei Nahar"; that they should not have a pleasant aroma - "ka'Ahalim Nata Hashem"; that they should not have kings of great stature - "ka'Arazim alei Mayim;" that they should not have a king the son of a king (hereditary kingship) ? "Yizal Mayim mi'Dalyo" (Pasuk 7); that they should not rule over other nations - "ve'Zar'o be'Mayim Rabim"; that their kingdom should not be brazen - "ve'Yarom me'Agag Malko"; that their kingdom should not rise - "ve'Sinasei Malchuso".
Targum Yonasan: It means that Hashem changed Bil'am's words - ffrom K'lalah to Berachah - in his mouth. Refer to answers #1 & #2.
In order to break Yisrael's connection with the Shechinah. See Sifsei Chachamim, Balak, Bamidbar 24:6, note 80.
Why does the Torah write "Vayahafoch? es ha'Kelalah li'Verachah" in the singular?
Sanhedrin 105b: Because all of Bil'am's Brachos turned into curses, except for one - "Mah Tovu Ohalecha" (only it became an everlasting Berachah). 1
Refer to Bamidbar 24:5:151:1 as to why it was different. Indeed, the Batei Keneisiyos and Batei-Midrashos have been the linchpin of our existence throughout the Galus up to the present day.
