1)

What is the definition of "Bein ha'Arbayim", and why is it called by that name?

1.

Rashi: Refer to Sh'mos 12:6:5:1.

2.

Ramban: Refer to Sh'mos 12:6:5:2.

2)

Since when is Pesach on the 14th of Nisan?

1.

Rashi: Pesach in this Pasuk refers (not to the Yom-Tov, but) to the bringing of the Korban by the same name.

3)

Since the fourteenth of Nisan is not included in the Mikra'ei Kodesh, why does the Torah insert it here

1.

Seforno: Because it is the cause of the fixture of the Yamim-Tovim, 1 since, on account of the first Korban Pesach that was brought in Egypt, Pesach must always be arranged to fall in the spring - like it did then. 2


1

Oznayim la'Torah: I fact, it is the main reason for fixing a leap-year ? as the Torah writes in R'ei, Devarim, 10:1 "Shamor Es Chodesh Ha'aviv". Se Oznayim la'Torah.

2

Seforno: As the Torah indicates in Devarim 16:1.

4)

Why does the Torah write "Pesach la'Hashem"?

1.

Moshav Zekenim, citing R. Eliezer of Garmaiza: It is a time when Hashem has mercy on his creations, from the Creation until now. Refer to Sh'mos 12:11:4:2.

2.

Moshav Zekenim #1: "Peh Sach" - [Avraham's] mouth, which said "ba'Meh Eda", caused His children to be enslaved until this time.

3.

Moshav Zekenim: "Pesach" is the acronym of 'Peh Sach', as if to say The mouth on the Merkavah (Hashem's chariot) speaks ? It announces that the time to redeem Yisrael has arrived. In other words, the letters on the Merkavah advocate for Yisrael.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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