What are the ramifications of "mi'Moshevoseichem"?
Rashi and Ramban (on Pasuk 15): Because, in contrast to all other Korbanos, 1 it may not be brought from the crops of Chutz la'Aretz.
With the sole exception of the Omer, as implied in 23:10 (Menachos 83b).
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) word "Tavi'u"?
Menachos 83b: To teach us that if no new crops are available, one may bring the Shtei ha'Lechem from old crops ('that are lying in the attic').
Menachos 77b: To teach us that, just as here, each Chalah comprises one Isaron ( a tenth of an Eifah) so too, wherever one brings loaves - the Lachmei Todah - each Chalah should comprise one Isaron per Chalah - and not a total of two Isronos, like here, since the Torah adds the word "Tih'yenah". 1
See Torah Temimah, note 60.
Why do we bring the Shtei ha'Lechem on Shavu'os?
Why are the Shtei ha'Lechem, as opposed to most other Menachos, brought as Chametz?
Ramban #1 and Seforno: Because it comes as a form of Todah, 1 2 to thank Hashem for guarding the crops and enabling them to ripen successfully.
Ramban #2 (according to Kabalah): In the future, all Korbanos will become Bateil, except for the Todah, which contains Chametz and Matzah, which is a semblance of the world to come. 3
The commentaries explain that, based on the fact that Chametz symbolizes the Yeitzer-ha'Ra, and Matzah, the Yeitzer-Tov, the Omer comprises Matzah, because on Pesach, they were on the level of animals. 4
Ramban: Which included ten Chametz loaves.
Seforno: Which is also why, like a Todah, it is brought together with a Shelamim.
See Ramban.
In contrast to the Shtei ha'Lechem, which were brought on Shavu'os, when they had reached the level of human-beings, consisted of Chametz. Refer to 23:11:1.1:1.
What is the "Lechem Tenufah"?
Rashi: It is the Shtei ha'Lechem, so called because it is separated for the sake of Hashem. 1
Before it is brought to the Beis-Hamikdash (See Sifsei Chachamim).
Why is "Lechem Tenufah Shtayim" written in the plural?
Sifra: To teach us that the two loaves should be equal. 1
See also Torah Temimah (citing the Sifra) and note 62.
What are the implications of "Sh'nei Esronim"?
Sifra: It implies that the two Isronin should be equal. 1
As is always the case when the Torah write "Sh'nei" or "Shtei".
What are the implications of the word "Tih'yenah"?
Menachos 27a: It implies that the two loaves are crucial - and if only one is available, the Kohanim may not bring it.
Why does the Pasuk conclude with the words "Bikurim La'Shem"?
Rashi: Because it is the first of all the Menachos 1 to be brought from the new crops.
Seforno: Refer to 23:16:4:4*, and it adds the word "La'Shem" because it permits Chadash in the Beis-Hamikdash 2 with regard to the Korbanos.
Menachos 46b: The Torah compares the Shtei ha'Lechem to Bikurim, to teach us a. that if the accompanyimg lambs are not available, they may be brought without them, and b. that the loaves are eaten. 3
Sifra: The Torah inserts "Bikurim La'Shem" in order to learn via a Gezeirah Shavah "Bikurim La'Shem" (Vayikra 2:14) from the Minchas ha'Omer that the Shtei ha'Lechem are purchased from public funds.
