What are the ramifications of "mi'Moshvoseichem"?
Rashi and Ramban (on Pasuk 15): Because, in contrast to all other Korbanos, 1 it may not be brought from the crops of Chutz la'Aretz.
With the sole exception of the Omer, as implied in 23:10 (Menachos, 83b).
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) word "Tavi'u"?
Menachos, 83b: To teach us that if no new crops are available, one may bring the Sh'tei ha'Lechem from old crops ('that are lying in the attic').
Menachos, 77b: To teach us that, just as here, each Chalah comprises one Isaron ( a tenth of an Eifah) so too, wherever one brings loaves - the Lachmei Todah - each Chalah should comprise one Isaron per Chalah - and not a total of two Isronos, like here, since the Torah adds the word "Tih'yenah". 1
See Torah Temimah, note 60.
Why do we bring the Sh'tei ha'Lechem on Shavu'os?
Why are the Sh'tei ha'Lechem, as opposed to most other Menachos, brought as Chametz?
Seforno: The Sh'tei ha'Lechem are brought together with a Shelamim (the two lambs) - similar to a regular Korban Todah.
Ramban (according to Kabalah): In the future, all Korbanos will become Bateil, except for the Todah, which contains Chametz and Matzah, which is a semblance of the world to come.
The commentaries explain that, based on the fact that Chametz symbolizes the Yeitzer-ha'Ra, and Matzah, the Yeitzer-Tov, the Omer comprises Chametz, because on Pesach, they were on the level of animals. 1
In contrast the Sh'tei ha'Lechem, which were brought on Shavu'os, when they had reached the level of human-beings, consisted of Matzah. Refer to 23:11:1.1:1.
What is the "Lechem Tenufah"?
Rashi: It is the Shtei ha'Lechem, so called because it is separated for the sake of Hashem. 1
Before it is brought to the Beis-Hamikdash (See Sifsei Chachamim).
Why is "Lechem Tenufah" written in the plural?
Sifra: To teach us that the to loaves should be equal. 1
See also Torah Temimah (citing the Sifra) and note 62.
What are the implications of the word "Tih'yenah"?
Menachos, 27a: It implies that the two loaves are crucial - and if only one is available, the Kohanim may not bring it.
Why does the Pasuk conclude with the words "Bikurim la'Hashem"?
Rashi: Because it is the first of all the Menachos 1 to be brought from the new crops.
Seforno: Refer to 23:16:4:4*, and it adds the word "la'Hashem", because it permits Chadash in the Beis-Hamikdash 2 with regard to the Korbanos.
Menachos, 46b: The Torah compares the Sh'tei ha'Lechem to Bikurim, to teach us a. that if the accompanyimg lambs are not available, they may be brought without them, and b. that the loaves are eaten. 3
Sifra: The Torah inserts "Bikurim la'Hashem" in order to learn via a Gezeirah Shavah "Bikurim la'Hashem" from the Minchas ha'Omer that the Sh'tei ha'Lechem are purchased from public funds.
