"Va'Haveisem Es Omer Reishis Ketzirchem El ha'Kohen. V'Heinif Es ha'Omer." What are the implications of the juxtaposition of "V'Heinif" to "ha'Kohen"?
Sifra: It implies that the Ketzirah does not need to be performed by a Kohen.
What is the significance of the waving (See Oznayim la'Torah)?
Rashi: The Kohen waves the Omer in all four directions, forwards and backwards - to negate harmful winds, and up and down 1 - to negate harmful dews.
Oznayim la'Torah: The Kohen waves the Omer in all directions as a sign of acknowledgement and of thanks to Ha'Kadosh-Baruch-Hu 2 for having providing the current year's crops of animal-food. 3
See Sifsei Chachamim.
And when we acknowledge and thank Hashem for last year's harvest, He blesses the coming year's crops. Refer to 23:10:9:1.
Refer to 23:10:10:1.
"V'Heinif Es ha'Omer ... li'Retzonechem." What are the connotations of "li'Retzonechem"?
Sifra: It teaches us that Beis-Din do not have the authority to force the Tzibur to bring the Omer. 1
See Torah Temimah note 37.
When exactly, is "mi'Mochoras ha'Shabbos" referring to?
Rashi, Ramban and Rashbam (all citing Menachos 66a): The day after the first day of Pesach. 1
Why does the Torah refer to the first day of Pesach as Shabbos?
B'nei Yisaschar: Because, as opposed to regular Yamim-Tovim, which are fixed by the Chachamim (Is'arusa di'Le'tata), the first night of Pesach in Egypt was fixed by Hashem (Is'arusa di'Le'eila) - like Shabbos - since Yisrael, who were on the lowest level of Tum'ah, were not yet worthy of being redeemed on their own merit. 1
And that explains why Hashem had to redeem them Himself and not through an angel - since, due to their low level, no angel would have been able to redeem them. See also Oznayim la'Torah who answers the question in similar fashion and elaborates.
Having just stated that they brought the Omer to the Kohen, why does the Torah insert the word "ha'Kohen" here?
