What are th implications of the words "ve'Nasnu la'Avi ha'Na'arah"?
Sifri: It implies "la'Avai ha'Na'arah", 've'Lo la'Avi ha'Bogeres' - even though she ws a Na'arah when the act took place. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 150.
How much is Me'ah Kesef?
It is a hundred Shekel ha'Kodesh (where one Shekel = a Sela), 1 according to the denomination of Manah Tzuri. 2
Normally 1 Shekel = 2 Sela'im. See also Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan. All the current details apply equally to Oneis and Mefateh in the following Parshiyos.
See Torah Temimah in Korac Bamidbar, 18:16, note 61.
Why does the Torah spell the word "la'Avi ha'Na'arah" with a 'Hey' - as opposed to all the other times the word appears in the Parshah, where the 'Hey' is missing?
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) phrase "Ki Hotzi Shem-Ra ... "?
What are the implications of the words "Al Besulas Yisrael"?
Kesuvos, 44b: To preclude the Besulah who is a Giyores from the Din of Motzi-Shem Ra - from which we can extrapolate that a Yesomah Yisre'elis who has no father, is included. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 152.
Seeing as the man spoke Motzi-Shem-Ra about his wife, why does the Torah insert "ve'Lo Sih'yeh le'Ishah"?
Makos, 15a: To teach us that, if he divorces her, he does not receive Malkos, since "ve'Lo Sih'yeh le'Ishah" is an Asei, and a La'av ha'Nitak la'Asei is not subject to Malkos. 1
Yerushalmi Kesuvos, 3:6: To teach us thar if he divorces her, we force him to take her back.
Sifri #1: To teach us that 'he is forced to lay in the bed that he made' 2 - that he must remain married to her even if she is lame, blind or a leper.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluus) words "Tachas asher Inah"?
Kesuvos, 40b: To obligate the rapist to pay
What are the implications of the (otherwise superfluous) words "Kol Yamav"?
Sifri: It implies even after a long time. 1
Ha'Torah ve'ha'Mitzvah: Ten years. See also Torah Temimah, mjote 157.
Seeing as from the time she is married, the girl is independent, why does her father receive the money?
Moshav Zekenim #1: The father does not keep the money, like he keeps the fine for Oneis and Mefateh. Rather, it is entrusted with him for safekeeping or to invest it on her behalf.
Moshav Zekenim #2: It is his remuneration for advocating for her.
Moshav Zekenim #3: The claim against him was a great blemish and shame for him. He therefore receives the money in place of this. 1
It was a great blemish and shame for the girl as well, so why does she get nothing? (PF)
Why does a Motzi-Shem-Ra pay more than one who raped a Na'arah Besulah?
Moshav Zekenim: Because the Torah tends to be more stringent regarding speech than regarding action (Erchin 15a). 1
Oznayim la'Torah: Because, as opposed to the act of rape, which only causes pain and shame to the girl and her father, Motzi-Shem-Ra results in a bad name on all Besulos. 2
Moshav Zekenim: This is also the source that thoughts of sin are worse than sin itself (Yoma 29a).
Refer to 22:21:1.1:1.