1)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "ve'Atah, Sh'vu Na ? Gam Atem ? "?

1.

"Rashi: "Gam Atem" implies that they (the second set of emissaries) wre destined to end up as disappointed as the first ones. 1

1

Rashi: Even though this may not be what he meant to say, 'his mouth tripped him up'.

2)

What are the implications of "Mah Yosef Hashem Daber elai"?

1.

Rashi: Acknowledging the fact that Hashem would not change from B'rachah to K'lalah, Bil'am expressed hope that He does not add to their blessings. He was unaware that this was a prophecy that Hashem would add to the B'rachos through him!

3)

? ? Sh?vu Na ba?Zeh ha?Laylah?. What is the significance of ?ha?Laylah??

1.

R. Bachye (citing a Midrash): That is why Hashem punished Mo?av at night-time - ? ? ki be?Leil Shudad Ar Mo?avki be?Leil Shudad Kir Mo?av Nidmeh? (Yeshayah 15:1) corresponds to the two night that the emissaries of Balak lodged with Bil?am.

4)

Is this what Bil'am told all the people who came to him with requests for B'rachos or K'lalos?

1.

Oznayim la'Totah: Not at all! He responded to other clients with witchcraft, 1 which has the power to override the heavenly decree; 2 and it is only here, where the isssue concerned Yisrael - who are not affected by witchcraft, 3 that he was forced to turn to Hashem for permission.

1

Refer to 22:7:2:1.

2

As the Gemara states in Sanahedrin, 67b.

3

Oznayim la'Torah: As Bil'am himself will state later in 23:23, according to the Ramban.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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