What are the connotations of "Emor lahem le'Doroseichem"?
Bava Basra, 120a: "Lahem" refers to those who were standing at Har Sinai, and "le'Doroseichem", to future generations.
What does the Torah mean when it writes "Kol Ish Asher Yikrav... el ha'Kodshim"?
See Sifsei Chachamim.
Rashi: Because if one would be Chayav Kareis for touching Kodshim be'Tum'ah, the Pesukim (7:20 & 21) which prescribes Kareis for eating them be'Tum'ah would be superfluous. This is unlike R. Yossi ha'Gelili (Zevachim 13:2) who holds that a Tamei person is liable only for eating Tahor Kodshim (he was not Metamei it through touching it - PF)! Refer to 22:3:151:1.
What are the implications of "Kol Ish"?
Sifra: It implies all of Yisrael - even non-Kohanim.
Seeing as one is only Chayav for eating Kodshim be'Tum'ah, why does the Torah write "asher Yikrav"?
Rashi: To teach us that one is only Chayav Kareis if the parts of the Korban that permit it to be eaten (the blood and Cheilev) have already been offered, and it is ready to eat.
Having written "Kol Ish", why does the Torah add "mi'Kol Zar'achem"?
Sifra: To incorporate women in the Chiyuv Kareis for eating Kodshim be'Tum'ah.
Having written "mi'Kol Zar'achem" , why does the Torah add "asher Yakdishu B'nei Yisrael"?
Oznayim la'Torah (citing Chazal): It precludes the Kodshim of a Nochri from the Isur of Tum'ah, Nosar and Pigul.
Why does the Torah mention Kareis three times (two in Tzav, 7:21 & 20 and one here) in connection with Tum'ah?
Rashi (citing Shevu'os, 7a): One is a K'lal (with reference to all Kodshim); one, a P'rat (with reference to Shelamim) - to preclude someone who eats Kodshei Bedek ha'Bayis from Kareis, and one, to include someone who eats a Korban Olah ve'Yored.
What is the meaning of "ve'Tum'aso alav"?
Why does the Pasuk conclude "Ani Hashem"?
Rashi: To preclude the notion that the perpetrator is cut off from the people in his location and that he can go and live somewhere else; 1 Therefore Hashem declares that He is everywhere.
Moshav Zekenim: Why is this necessary, seeing as the Torah wrote "mi'Lefanai"?
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that if one were Chayav Kareis for touching Kodshim be'Tum'ah, we would not need Pesukim to obligate Kareis for eating them b'Tum'ah. One can eat without touching -such as where someone else places the food in his throat, or if he eats a half-k'Zayis at a time, or even a k'Zayis, according to the opinion that less than k'Beitzah is not Mekabel Tum'ah mi'd'Oraisa?
Riva citing R. Elyakim: If it is so stringent that one is liable for touching, all the more so one is liable for eating! 'Ein Onshin Min ha'Din' applies only to Malkos and Misas Beis Din, but not to Misah bi'Yedei Shamayim [and Kareis].
