What are the ramifications of "ve'Lo Yechalel Zar'o"?
Rashi: Should he 1 father a child from one of the Pesulei Kehunah, he is empty ('Chalal') from Kedushas Kehunah. 2
Ramban and Moshav Zekenim (both citing Kidushin, 78a): It is a second Lav against defiling the Kedushah of one's children, which is subject to an additional set of Malkos. 3
Kidushin, 78a: It exempts the Kohen Gadol from Malkos for "Lo Yikach" unless he is subsequently intimate after marrying her, 4 seeing as the reason behind "Lo Yikach" is "Lo Yechalel Zar'o". On the other other hand, if he is intimate without Kidushin, he has transgressed "ve'Lo Yechalel Zar'o" and is subject to Malkos.
Kidushin, 77a: If his children, who did not sin, are Chalalim, how much more so the Almanah... , who did. 5 Moreover, "Lo Yechalel" implies that he renders a Chalal someone who was previously Kasher. 6
Yevamos, 60a: The Torah is comparing his Chalal sons to him, inasmuch as, just as he renders the Almanah ... Pasul to eat Terumah, so too will his children render Pasul a woman with whom they are intimate to eat Terumah (and by the same token, just as he renders his daughter a Chalalah, so too, will his sons 7 render their daughters Chalalos - Kidushin, 77a).
Kidushin, 68a: It implies that his children are Chalalim but not Mamzerim. 8
Sotah, 21a: It implies that his children are Chalalim but he is not. 9
Yrushalmi, Yevamos 6:2: "Zar'o" has connotations of 'Ra'uy Lehazri'a' (fit to inseminate) - implying that the Kohen Gadol only makes Chalalim via a G'mar Bi'ah, but not via Ha'ara'ah.
The Kohen Gadol, or even a Kohen Hedyot.
Sifsei Chachamim; And if it is girl, she is forbidden to marry a Kohen.
Ramban: "Lo Yikach" forbids Kidushin, but he is is subject to Malkos only if he is subsequently intimate (See Ramban). And the fact that the children are Chalalim is automatically understood.
In which case he receives two sets of Malkos. See Torah Temimah, note 101.
See Torah Temimah, note 105.
See Torah Temimah (Ibid.) aand note 106.
But not his daughters - See Torah Temimah (Ibid.) and note 109.
See Torah Temimah, note 104.
See Torah Temimah, note 107.
Why does the Torah write "ve'Lo Yechalel" (with a double 'Lamed') and not "ve'Lo Yachel"?
Rashi (in Yevamos, 44b): One 'Lamed' teaches us that the Pasul woman becomes a Chalalah, the other, that her child becomes a Chalal, too. 1
Yerushalmi Yevamos, 6:2: To teach us that even if the Kohen Gadol rapes the Almanah ... , she becomes a Chalalah.
Rashi (Ibid, 15b): Others learn that she becomes a Chalalah from the word "be'Amav".
