What are the implications of the words "Lo Yavo"?
Rashi: To forbid a Kohen even to enter the Ohel in which a Meis is lying.
Why does the Torah insert the word "Nafshos"?
Having just forbidden the Kohen Gadol to render himself Tamei Meis, why does the Torah find it necessary to add "le'Aviv u'le'Imo Lo Yitama"?
Rashi #1 (citing Sanhedrin, 47b): To extrapolate that he may (and should) render himself Tamei for a Meis Mitzvah. 1
Moshav Zekenim: If he enters Ohel ha'Mes, he transgresses both"Lo Yavo" and "Lo Yitama." A Gezeirah Shavah teaches that the same applies to a Kohen Hedyot.
Sanhedrin, 48a: We learn via a Gezeirah Shavah "le'Imo" "le'Imo" from Nazir - in Naso, Bamidbar, 6:7 - where the Torah adds "be'Mosam" - that a Kohen Gadol is permitted to render himself Tamei for relatives who are Metzora'im or Zavim. 3
Why does the Torah not mention Se'eiro (Ishro) and the Kohen Gadol's other relatives?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because "ve'Al Kol Nafshos Meis Lo Yavo" incorporates all his relatives, and the Torah only mentions Aviv ve'Imo on account of the D'rashos that we learn from them. 1
As we learned in the answers to the previous question.
The Gemara in Nazir learns from "u'le'Achoso" written by Nazir [that the Kohen Gadol is Metamei for a Meis Mitzvah. Why does it not learn it from here - from a Kohen Gadol seeing as having already stated that he may not become Tamei for any Meis, "le'Aviv u'le'Imo" is otherwise superfluous?
Moshav Zekenim citing R. Hillel: We need "le'Aviv u'le'Imo" to teach us that the prohibition is confined to human corpses, since we might otherwise have thought that "Nafshos Meis" incorporates those of animals.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that he may become Tamei for a Meis Mitzvah. What is considered a Meis Mitzvah?
Refer to 21:1:4:1.
Da'as Zekenim: The Rambam says that he finds a Meis on the road, and he is so far from people that if he screams, no one will hear. This is a big stringency.
